ATI RN
Theories of Health Behavior Change Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which characteristics should the nurse recognize as being exhibited by individuals diagnosed with any personality disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because individuals with personality disorders typically do not see their behavior as problematic. They often lack insight into their behaviors and believe their actions are normal. This lack of awareness and acceptance of their altered behaviors is a common characteristic of personality disorders. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with personality disorders often do not understand the impact of their behaviors on others, do not seek treatment willingly, and may have difficulties in relationships due to their maladaptive behaviors rather than past negative experiences.
Question 2 of 5
Which medication classification would the nurse recognize as effective in the treatment of Tourette's disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antipsychotic medications. Antipsychotics, like haloperidol or risperidone, are recognized as effective in treating Tourette's disorder due to their ability to reduce tics and other symptoms by modulating dopamine activity. Other options such as antimanic medications (B), tricyclic antidepressants (C), and MAOIs (D) are not typically used as first-line treatments for Tourette's. Antimanic medications are more commonly used for bipolar disorder, tricyclic antidepressants may exacerbate tics, and MAOIs have limited evidence for effectiveness in Tourette's.
Question 3 of 5
Which nursing statement explains how methylphenidate works when teaching parents about this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Methylphenidate is a stimulant that works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, specifically dopamine and norepinephrine. It helps improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. While the exact mechanism of how it works is not fully understood, research suggests that it enhances the activity of these neurotransmitters in the brain. Choice A is incorrect because methylphenidate is not a sedative and does not decrease energy levels. Choice C is incorrect because methylphenidate works by increasing, not decreasing, the levels of dopamine in the brain. Choice D is incorrect because methylphenidate primarily affects dopamine and norepinephrine levels, not serotonin levels. In summary, choice B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the general understanding of how methylphenidate works as a stimulant to alleviate symptoms of ADHD.
Question 4 of 5
60 year old post CVA patient is taking TPA for his disease, the nurse understands that this is an example of what level of prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and minimizing the impact of a disease or condition that is already present. In the case of a 60-year-old post CVA (cerebrovascular accident) patient taking tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), this medication is used to dissolve blood clots and improve blood flow in patients who have had a stroke. TPA is typically administered as part of acute care to prevent further damage from the stroke, making it an example of tertiary prevention in this context. Options A) Primary prevention and B) Secondary prevention are not applicable in this case. Primary prevention aims to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place through interventions such as lifestyle modifications or immunizations. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progression of a disease before it causes significant harm. Educationally, understanding the levels of prevention is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide comprehensive care to patients. It helps nurses and other healthcare providers in implementing appropriate interventions based on the stage of the disease or condition. This knowledge enables them to tailor their care plans to address the specific needs of each patient, leading to better outcomes and improved quality of care.
Question 5 of 5
Nurse Tony should first discuss terminating the nurse-client relationship with a client during the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of discussing terminating the nurse-client relationship, Nurse Tony should first broach this topic during the termination phase when discharge plans are being made (Option A). This phase is the most appropriate as it allows for a structured and gradual ending of the therapeutic relationship, ensuring that the client is adequately prepared for the transition and can access continued support if needed. The working phase (Option B) is focused on interventions and goal achievement, making it less suitable for initiating discussions about termination. In the orientation phase (Option C), the relationship is still being established, so discussing termination prematurely may disrupt the trust-building process. Additionally, waiting for the client to bring up termination during the working phase (Option D) may delay the process and potentially lead to abrupt endings without proper closure. Educationally, understanding the timing of discussing termination in a therapeutic relationship is crucial for nursing professionals. It involves ethical considerations, client autonomy, and ensuring a smooth transition out of care. By addressing this topic during the termination phase, nurses can uphold professional boundaries, respect client autonomy, and facilitate a positive closure to the relationship, ultimately promoting the client's well-being and continuity of care.