Which characteristics are seen with acute transplant rejection (select all that apply)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and immune system disorders related to acute transplant rejection, the correct answer is D) The recipient’s T cytotoxic lymphocytes attack the foreign organ. This is because acute transplant rejection involves the recipient's immune system recognizing the transplanted organ as foreign and mounting an immune response against it, primarily through the activation of T cytotoxic lymphocytes. Option A) Treatment is supportive is incorrect because acute transplant rejection typically requires immediate medical intervention beyond just supportive care, such as immunosuppressive medications. Option B) Only occurs with transplanted kidneys is incorrect because acute transplant rejection can occur with any transplanted organ, not just kidneys. Option C) Organ must be removed when it occurs is incorrect because not all cases of acute transplant rejection require the removal of the organ; prompt medical treatment can often reverse the rejection process and salvage the transplanted organ. Educational context: Understanding the mechanisms of acute transplant rejection is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in caring for transplant patients. Knowledge of how the immune system responds to foreign organs and the role of T cytotoxic lymphocytes in rejection is essential for proper management and treatment of transplant recipients. Immunology and pharmacology play key roles in preventing and managing acute transplant rejection episodes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of HIV infection, utilizing a combination of antiretroviral drugs like two NRTIs and a PI is crucial due to the rapid mutation rate of HIV. The primary rationale for combination therapy, as highlighted in option B, is that it decreases the potential for the development of antiretroviral-resistant HIV variants. By using multiple drugs that target different stages of the virus's replication cycle, the likelihood of the virus developing resistance to all components of the drug regimen is significantly reduced. Option A is incorrect because cross-resistance can still occur between specific antiretroviral drugs, even when given in combination. Option C is not the primary reason for using combination therapy; the goal is to effectively combat the virus rather than solely reducing side effects. Option D is also incorrect as the CD4+ T-cell count threshold mentioned is not directly related to the rationale behind combination therapy. Educationally, understanding the rationale for combination therapy in HIV treatment is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective care to patients. It underscores the importance of adherence to prescribed regimens and the need for ongoing monitoring to ensure treatment success and prevent the development of drug-resistant strains of HIV.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Alkylating agents for treating the Hodgkin’s lymphoma. This is because alkylating agents are a class of chemotherapy drugs commonly used in the treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, which is a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system. Patients with a history of Hodgkin’s lymphoma are often treated with alkylating agents like mechlorethamine, cyclophosphamide, or procarbazine. Option A) Work as a radiation chemist is incorrect because it is not directly related to the patient’s medical history of leukemia and Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Option B) Epstein-Barr virus diagnosed in vitro is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with the treatment or history of these specific types of cancers. Option C) Intense tanning throughout the lifetime is not relevant to the patient’s medical history and does not provide any information related to their diagnosis or treatment. In an educational context, understanding the patient’s medical history is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in pharmacology. Knowing the patient’s previous treatments, medications, and diagnoses can help healthcare providers make informed decisions regarding current and future treatments, as certain drugs may interact with previous therapies or conditions. This question highlights the importance of pharmacological knowledge in the context of cancer treatment and the impact of past treatments on current health conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and immune system disorders, understanding the appropriate use of chemotherapy is crucial. In this quiz question, the correct answer is B) New neuroblastoma. Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that originates in nerve tissue and is commonly found in young children. Chemotherapy is often an effective treatment for neuroblastoma due to its ability to target rapidly dividing cells, which is a hallmark of cancer cells. In the case of a new neuroblastoma, where the cancer is at an early stage and has not spread extensively, chemotherapy stands a good chance of curing the patient by eradicating the cancerous cells. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Small cell lung cancer: While chemotherapy is a common treatment for small cell lung cancer, the word "cured" is rarely associated with this treatment due to the aggressive nature of the disease and the likelihood of recurrence. C) Small tumor of the bone: Chemotherapy is not typically the first-line treatment for small tumors of the bone. Surgical removal or localized treatments like radiation therapy are usually preferred. D) Large hepatocellular carcinoma: Chemotherapy may be used to slow the progression of hepatocellular carcinoma or to shrink the tumor before surgery, but curing this advanced stage cancer with chemotherapy alone is unlikely. Understanding the appropriate use of chemotherapy in different types and stages of cancer is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the treatment of patients with immune system disorders. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions regarding the most effective treatment strategies based on individual patient conditions, ultimately aiming for the best possible outcomes.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Secondary malignancies. When a patient asks about the late effects of chemotherapy and high-dose radiation, it is crucial for the nurse to address the risk of developing secondary malignancies. This is because exposure to high doses of radiation and certain chemotherapeutic agents can damage healthy cells, increasing the risk of developing new cancers later in life. Option A) Third space syndrome is incorrect in this context as it typically refers to the shift of fluid from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, causing edema and hypovolemia. While this can be a complication of certain conditions or treatments, it is not directly related to the late effects of chemotherapy and radiation. Option C) Chronic nausea and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not typically considered late effects. These symptoms usually improve once the treatment is completed, and addressing them does not encompass the full scope of potential late effects. Option D) Persistent myelosuppression is a valid concern with chemotherapy and radiation, but it primarily refers to prolonged suppression of bone marrow function leading to decreased blood cell production. While this can have long-term consequences, the development of secondary malignancies is a more significant late effect that patients should be aware of. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to provide comprehensive information to patients about the potential long-term effects of cancer treatments. By understanding and discussing these late effects, patients can make informed decisions about their care and be proactive in monitoring for any signs of complications post-treatment.