ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which best describes the social determinants of health?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because social determinants of health refer to the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age, which significantly impact their health outcomes. These factors include socioeconomic status, education, neighborhood environment, employment, and social support. Genetics and individual behavior (choice A) are important but only part of the broader determinants. Availability of health services and technology (choice C) and access to health care services (choice D) are important but do not encompass the full range of social determinants that influence health.
Question 2 of 9
Parkinson's disease is associated with the loss of which of the following neurotransmitter?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain. Dopamine is crucial for controlling movement, mood, and cognition. Serotonin (A) is not directly related to Parkinson's. Adrenaline (B) is involved in the fight-or-flight response, not Parkinson's. GABA (D) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Economic stability, as it directly influences access to healthcare, housing, education, and nutritious food, impacting overall health. Genetic predisposition (A) refers to inherited traits, not external factors. Personal health behaviors (B) are individual choices. Biological factors (C) focus on physical attributes, not societal influences. Economic stability (D) aligns with social determinants by addressing social, economic, and environmental factors that shape health outcomes.
Question 4 of 9
During secondary prevention activities, what action is a healthcare professional performing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing early treatment for disease. Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of a disease to prevent its progression. By providing early treatment, healthcare professionals aim to minimize the impact of the disease and prevent complications. Conducting health screenings (A) is part of primary prevention to identify risk factors before a disease develops. Administering medications (C) is a treatment intervention but not specific to secondary prevention. Referral to specialized care (D) may be needed but does not directly involve providing early treatment for the disease as in secondary prevention.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is not a therapeutic indication of bone marrow puncture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bone marrow puncture is not indicated for analgesia but for diagnostic purposes. 2. Antibiotics may be indicated to prevent infection during the procedure. 3. Anaesthesia may be used to minimize pain and discomfort. 4. Inflammation is a condition that may necessitate bone marrow puncture for diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the therapeutic indications of bone marrow puncture.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following are major veins commonly used in parenteral cannulation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: I'm sorry, but the correct answer provided (D: Aorta) is actually incorrect in this context. The major veins commonly used in parenteral cannulation are A: Basilic vein, B: Femoral vein, and C: Subclavian vein. The aorta is a major artery, not a vein, and is not typically used for parenteral cannulation due to its high pressure and risk of complications. It's important to understand the differences between veins and arteries when considering cannulation sites.
Question 7 of 9
Which strategy is most effective in improving health literacy among patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using clear and simple language in communication is the most effective strategy in improving health literacy among patients. This approach ensures that information is easily understood and retained by patients of diverse educational backgrounds. Clear communication helps patients comprehend health-related information, make informed decisions, and follow treatment plans correctly. Providing health education sessions (choice B) may be beneficial, but the effectiveness can vary depending on the presentation and comprehension levels of patients. One-on-one counseling (choice C) is helpful, but it may not be feasible for all patients due to time and resource constraints. Distributing written materials (choice D) can be a useful supplement, but may not be as effective as clear verbal communication in addressing individual questions and concerns.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is not a common causative agent of bacterial meningitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Bacterial meningitis is commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae. Step 2: Staphylococcus aureus is not a common causative agent of bacterial meningitis. Step 3: Staphylococcus aureus is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections. Summary: Choices A, B, and D are common causative agents of bacterial meningitis, while choice C, Staphylococcus aureus, is not commonly associated with this infection.
Question 9 of 9
Which sign or reflex is used to diagnose meningitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Brudzinski sign. This sign is used to diagnose meningitis because it involves the involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed. This reflex is indicative of meningeal irritation and is a classic sign of meningitis. A: Homan's sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis, not meningitis. C: Startle reflex is a normal response to a sudden unexpected stimulus, not specific to meningitis. D: Anterior drawer test is used to assess for ligamentous instability in the knee, not related to meningitis.