ATI RN
Psychotropic Medications Medcomm Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which best defines a patient who is a poor metabolizer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a poor metabolizer is a patient who processes medications slowly, leading to higher drug levels in the blood. This can increase the risk of toxicity due to the accumulation of the drug. Choice B is a duplicate of A. Choice C is incorrect as poor metabolizers actually have an increased risk of side effects and adverse reactions due to the higher drug levels. Choice D is too extreme and not universally applicable as poor metabolizers may still be prescribed antidepressants with adjusted dosages.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who recently started on a first generation antipsychotic reports sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Which of the following actions by the PMHNP is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevated prolactin levels are a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics, leading to sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Ordering a blood test to examine prolactin levels is appropriate to monitor for this side effect. Option B is incorrect as sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge are not normal responses to treatment. Option C is irrelevant as OTC supplements are not typically related to these symptoms. Option D is incorrect as discontinuing medication without proper evaluation and management of side effects can worsen the patient's condition.
Question 3 of 5
Mary is a 39-year-old attending a psychiatric outpatient clinic. Mary believes that her husband, sister, and son cause her problems. Listening to Mary describe the problems, the nurse displays therapeutic communication in which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): A is the correct response because it demonstrates empathy and understanding towards Mary's difficult situation without making assumptions or judgments. It acknowledges Mary's feelings and shows support without imposing personal opinions. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: B: This choice invalidates Mary's feelings by implying she should not dwell on being wronged. It may come across as dismissive and does not validate Mary's emotions. C: This response focuses on the nurse's feelings rather than Mary's, which is not therapeutic communication. It does not address Mary's concerns directly. D: This response assumes Mary's family members are uncaring, which could lead to conflict or defensiveness. It does not reflect active listening or empathy towards Mary's perspective.
Question 4 of 5
Which patient behavior suggests that they may be at risk for suicide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because verbalizing a desire to end their life and giving away possessions are clear indicators of suicidal ideation and planning. This behavior demonstrates a serious intent to harm oneself. Expressing frustration (choice B) is a common emotion and does not necessarily indicate suicidal risk. Appearing sad and withdrawn (choice C) without any statements about harm may suggest depression but not necessarily suicide risk. Not wanting to participate in group activities (choice D) without a specific reason could be due to various factors and does not directly correlate with suicidal behavior.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient with schizophrenia. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Administering prescribed antipsychotic medications) Rationale: 1. Priority is to address the patient's symptoms effectively. 2. Antipsychotic medications are essential in managing schizophrenia. 3. Medication adherence is crucial to prevent symptom exacerbation. 4. Stabilizing the patient's condition is necessary for overall care. Summary: - Choice A: Emotional support is important but not the priority. - Choice B: Socialization can be beneficial, but symptom management is crucial. - Choice C: ADLs are important but not as critical as medication administration.