ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the nurse is using criticalthinking standards when communicating with patients? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uses humility. Critical thinking in nursing involves being open-minded, self-aware, and willing to consider different perspectives. Humility allows nurses to acknowledge their limitations, seek feedback, and continuously learn and improve. Instilling faith (A) may be important but does not directly relate to critical thinking standards. Self-confidence (C) can be beneficial, but excessive confidence can lead to closed-mindedness. Supportiveness (D) is valuable in patient care but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking standards. In summary, humility enables nurses to approach patient communication with an open and reflective mindset, essential for applying critical thinking standards effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use. C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment. D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to document a patient whohas chest pain. Which information is critical for the nurse to include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting the patient's pain intensity using a pain scale (8 out of 10) is crucial for assessing the severity of the chest pain. This information helps in determining the appropriate intervention and monitoring the effectiveness of treatment. Choice A is irrelevant as it does not provide any useful information about the patient's condition. Choice B is important for neurological assessment but not specifically related to chest pain. Choice C is not as critical as knowing the current pain level.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a sudden onset of hearing loss tells the nurse that he would like to begin using hearing aids. The nurse understands that the health professional dispensing hearing aids would have what responsibility?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Test the patient's hearing promptly. This is because before dispensing hearing aids, it is crucial to accurately assess the patient's hearing ability. Testing the patient's hearing promptly allows the healthcare professional to determine the type and degree of hearing loss, which is essential for selecting the appropriate hearing aids. Performing an otoscopy (choice B) may be part of the assessment but does not provide information on hearing ability. Measuring the width of the patient's ear canal (choice C) is not necessary for dispensing hearing aids. Referring the patient to his primary care physician (choice D) may delay the process of obtaining hearing aids and is not directly related to the responsibility of the health professional dispensing hearing aids.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is preparing a bowel training programfor a patient. Which actions will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recording times when the patient is incontinent is crucial in identifying patterns and establishing a structured bowel training program. This data helps in determining the optimal timing for toileting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not specific to bowel training and may not address the patient's individual needs. Choice C is not a recommended posture for effective bowel elimination. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to bowel training.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
Question 8 of 9
The patient has been diagnosed with cardiovascular disease and placed on a low-fat diet. The patient asks the nurse, “How much fat should I have? I guess the less fat, the better.” Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deficiencies occur when fat intake falls below 10% of daily nutrition. Rationale: 1. Fat is essential for absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) and for maintaining healthy cell membranes. 2. Fat provides essential fatty acids (omega-3, omega-6) crucial for brain function and inflammation regulation. 3. Adequate fat intake prevents deficiencies like dry skin, poor wound healing, and hormonal imbalances. 4. A low-fat diet should still include at least 10% of daily nutrition from healthy fats for optimal health. Summary: A: Cholesterol intake is important but not the primary focus for a low-fat diet. B: Fats are significant for health, and extreme low-fat diets can lead to deficiencies. C: While some fats are from external sources, the body needs a minimum amount for proper functioning.
Question 9 of 9
A patient newly diagnosed with breast cancer states that her physician suspects regional lymph node involvement and told her that there are signs of metastatic disease. The nurse learns that the patient has been diagnosed with stage IV breast cancer. What is an implication of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Stage IV breast cancer indicates distant metastasis, making the patient ineligible for curative surgery. Treatment for stage IV focuses on palliative care to manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Summary of Other Choices: B: Stage IV breast cancer is not considered highly treatable as it has spread beyond the breast and nearby lymph nodes, making it more challenging to cure. C: There is no evidence to suggest that stage IV breast cancer will self-resolve. The prognosis for metastatic breast cancer is typically poor. D: The 5-year survival rate for stage IV breast cancer is generally lower than 15%, making this choice incorrect.