ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry 12th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which behaviors are reflective of legitimate phases of a group’s development? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating the goals of the group is reflective of the forming stage where members clarify the purpose and direction. Choice B is incorrect as determining leadership roles typically occurs during the storming stage. Choice C is incorrect as involving family members is not part of the group development process. Choice D is incorrect as discussing personal situations usually happens during the norming or performing stages, not in the initial forming stage.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse plans care based upon the fact that anticipatory grief:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because anticipatory grief allows individuals to gradually accept the impending loss, leading to fewer feelings of guilt. This process helps the individual prepare emotionally and psychologically for the eventual loss, reducing guilt related to not being able to prevent it. Choice B is incorrect because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression, but rather helps individuals cope with them. Choice C is incorrect as anticipatory grief does not necessarily require a longer period of time for resolution; it varies for each individual. Choice D is incorrect, as mentioned earlier, because anticipatory grief does not prevent symptoms of depression but helps individuals navigate through them.
Question 3 of 5
Which intervention will the nurse planning care for a patient with acute grief implement?a. Providing information about the grief process
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing information about the grief process helps the patient understand their feelings and reactions, promoting emotional healing. Choice B is incorrect because suggesting community resources may not address the patient's immediate needs. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging dependence on the nurse may hinder the patient's ability to cope independently. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for complicated grief or depression is important but not the initial intervention in planning care for acute grief.
Question 4 of 5
The patient’s daughter was murdered while they were customers in a local bank. Which statements would support the patient’s diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Select all that apply:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because feeling numb and detached from emotions is a common symptom of PTSD known as emotional numbing. This symptom is often seen in individuals who have experienced a traumatic event, such as the murder of a loved one. It is a defense mechanism that helps the person cope with overwhelming emotions. The other choices are incorrect: B: Being nervous and easily startled (hypervigilance) is more indicative of the hyperarousal symptom of PTSD, not emotional numbing. C: Difficulty sleeping is a common symptom of PTSD, known as insomnia, but it does not directly relate to emotional numbing. D: Reliving the traumatic event through flashbacks or intrusive memories is a symptom of PTSD, but it is not directly related to emotional numbing.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse determines that a patient is showing a decline in explicit memory. Which characterizes such a deficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because difficulty remembering the name of a place visited 20 years ago is a specific example of explicit memory decline. Explicit memory refers to the ability to consciously recall past events, facts, or experiences. This choice directly relates to a long-term memory retrieval issue, which is a hallmark of explicit memory decline. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address explicit memory decline but rather touch on different memory processes such as procedural memory (A), short-term memory (C), and semantic memory (D).