Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which bacterium is known for causing food poisoning due to its production of enterotoxins?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium causes food poisoning by producing enterotoxins that lead to symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Staphylococcus aureus can survive in various food items and multiply rapidly, producing toxins that are heat-stable. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism due to neurotoxins, not enterotoxins. Salmonella enterica causes gastrointestinal infections, not primarily food poisoning. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera by producing a toxin that leads to severe watery diarrhea and dehydration, not enterotoxins like Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 2 of 5

When cultured on solid growth media, bacteria with long O-specific chains form:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.

Question 3 of 5

Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.

Question 4 of 5

On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 5 of 5

The tertiary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas). In the tertiary stage of syphilis, gummas, which are soft, tumor-like growths, can develop in various organs such as the skin, bones, liver, and brain. This stage typically occurs years after the initial infection and can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Purulent exudation from the urethra (B) is not specific to syphilis and may indicate other infections. Non-tender chancre (C) is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the tertiary stage. Diffuse maculopapular rash (D) is more commonly seen in the secondary stage of syphilis.

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