Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.

Question 2 of 5

In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) adheres to the intestinal wall using bundle-forming pili. 2. EPEC produces toxins that disrupt cell structure and function, leading to diarrhea. 3. Shigella spp. invade intestinal cells, Salmonella spp. invade and multiply within cells, and Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing profuse watery diarrhea. Summary: A, C, and D choices are incorrect because they do not specifically adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins like EPEC does.

Question 3 of 5

A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.

Question 4 of 5

Enzymes used in ELISA are those except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Β-lactamase. In ELISA, enzymes like alkaline phosphatase, horseradish peroxidase, and Β-galactosidase are commonly used as labels to detect the presence of specific molecules. Β-lactamase is not typically used in ELISA as it is an enzyme used to hydrolyze β-lactam antibiotics. Therefore, it does not serve the purpose of detecting specific molecules in ELISA. Alkaline phosphatase, horseradish peroxidase, and Β-galactosidase are preferred enzymes in ELISA due to their ability to produce a detectable signal when bound to specific molecules.

Question 5 of 5

Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

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