Which bacterial structure allows for attachment to host cells?

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Question 1 of 9

Which bacterial structure allows for attachment to host cells?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fimbriae. Fimbriae are hair-like appendages found on the surface of bacteria that enable attachment to host cells. This attachment is crucial for establishing infection. Flagella (A) are used for movement, not attachment. Capsules (C) provide protection and help evade the host immune system, but do not directly facilitate attachment. Endospores (D) are dormant structures for survival, not for attachment to host cells. Fimbriae specifically aid in adherence to host cells, making them the correct choice in this context.

Question 2 of 9

Antigenic variation is used by bacteria to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: evade host immune responses. Antigenic variation allows bacteria to change their surface antigens, making it difficult for the host immune system to recognize and attack them effectively. This enhances the bacteria's ability to evade immune responses and establish infection. B: Increase antibiotic susceptibility is incorrect because antigenic variation does not directly impact the susceptibility of bacteria to antibiotics. C: Increase peptidoglycan synthesis is incorrect because antigenic variation is not related to the synthesis of peptidoglycan, which is a major component of the bacterial cell wall. D: Enhance motility is incorrect because antigenic variation does not directly affect the motility of bacteria. In summary, antigenic variation in bacteria primarily serves to help them evade host immune responses, making option A the correct answer.

Question 3 of 9

After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.

Question 4 of 9

Treponemae are motile because of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: axial filaments. Treponemae are motile due to their unique structure of axial filaments, also known as endoflagella. These axial filaments are located within the periplasmic space of the organism and are responsible for the corkscrew-like motility of Treponemae. The other choices (B: mans peritrichous filaments, C: single monotrichous filament, D: fimbriae) do not play a role in the motility of Treponemae. Peritrichous filaments and single monotrichous filaments are not present in Treponemae, and fimbriae are primarily involved in adhesion rather than motility.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria produce the diphtheria toxin?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium produces the diphtheria toxin, which is responsible for causing diphtheria. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because Bacillus anthracis produces anthrax toxins, Clostridium tetani produces tetanus toxin, and Listeria monocytogenes does not produce the diphtheria toxin. Understanding the specific bacteria-toxin associations is crucial in correctly identifying the pathogen responsible for a particular disease.

Question 6 of 9

The First-line tuberculosis drugs include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid and rifampicin. These drugs are considered first-line treatment for tuberculosis due to their high efficacy and low toxicity. Isoniazid targets the cell wall of the tuberculosis bacteria, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis. They are recommended by WHO as the first choice for treating tuberculosis. Choice B (Penicillin and erythromycin) is incorrect because these antibiotics are not effective against tuberculosis bacteria. Choice C (Trimethoprim and third generation cephalosporins) is incorrect because they are not considered first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Choice D (All the listed above can be used depending on their resistance profile) is incorrect because only isoniazid and rifampicin are universally recognized as first-line drugs for tuberculosis regardless of resistance profile.

Question 7 of 9

Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enterica. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi. This specific strain of Salmonella is responsible for typhoid fever, a serious illness characterized by high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Escherichia coli (choice A) is not the causative agent of typhoid fever. Shigella flexneri (choice C) causes bacillary dysentery, not typhoid fever. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) can cause food poisoning but is not associated with typhoid fever.

Question 8 of 9

Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery can be isolated from the patient's blood:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillary dysentery primarily affects the intestinal tract, not the bloodstream. 2. Bacteremia is rare in bacillary dysentery, as the infection is localized. 3. Isolating bacteria from the blood is not a typical diagnostic feature. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery are not typically isolated from the patient's blood due to the localized nature of the infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest specific timeframes, which are not relevant to bacteremia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as bacteremia is not associated with bacillary dysentery.

Question 9 of 9

Acute hemorrhagic cystitis may be due to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C (Adenovirus) being correct: 1. Adenovirus is a common cause of acute hemorrhagic cystitis. 2. Adenovirus infects the bladder epithelium, leading to inflammation and bleeding. 3. Symptoms include hematuria and bladder pain. 4. Diagnosis is confirmed through viral culture or PCR testing. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Parvovirus B19 - More commonly associated with erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) and aplastic anemia. B: CMV - Known to cause congenital infections, mononucleosis, and retinitis, not typically associated with hemorrhagic cystitis. D: Herpesvirus type 2 - Commonly causes genital herpes, but not typically associated with acute hemorrhagic cystitis.

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