Which bacteria produce exotoxins that can cause severe dehydration and diarrhea?

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Question 1 of 9

Which bacteria produce exotoxins that can cause severe dehydration and diarrhea?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces cholera toxin, an exotoxin that causes severe dehydration and diarrhea by increasing the secretion of electrolytes and water in the intestines. Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera, a disease characterized by profuse watery diarrhea. Choice B, Clostridium tetani, produces tetanospasmin causing tetanus, not dehydration or diarrhea. Choice C, Escherichia coli, can cause diarrhea but rarely severe dehydration. Choice D, Shigella dysenteriae, produces Shiga toxin leading to bloody diarrhea, not severe dehydration.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following does NOT describe Cephalosporins

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: interferes with protein synthesis. Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis. They are bactericidal and have a relatively broad spectrum of activity against various bacteria. Choice A, B, and C all describe characteristics of cephalosporins, making them incorrect options.

Question 3 of 9

A 43-year-old cattle farm worker is brought to the surgeon with fever, malaise, and inflamed lesions on his hands and arms. He reports that about 2 weeks before his presentation at the hospital he noticed small, painless, pruritic papules that quickly enlarged and developed a central vesicle. The vesicles developed into erosion and left painless necrotic ulcers with black, depressed eschar. Gram's staining of the ulcer reveals gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. Which of the following diseases is the most likely cause of these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The clinical presentation of painless necrotic ulcers with black eschar, along with the gram-positive spore-forming bacilli seen on Gram's staining, is classic for cutaneous anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which produces spores and can lead to skin lesions in individuals working with animals or animal products. Choice B, Chickenpox, typically presents with vesicular rash all over the body. Choice C, Syphilis, is caused by Treponema pallidum and does not present with the characteristic eschar seen in the patient. Choice D, Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, presents with ulceroglandular lesions but lacks the black eschar characteristic of anthrax.

Question 4 of 9

A 23-year-old man developed a perforation in his hard palate, a dense formation with clear margins was detected in this area. After a surgery, microscopy of excised formation shows there a large focus of caseous necrosis surrounded with a granulation tissue with endovasculitis and a cellular infiltration consisting of lymphocytes and epithelioid cells with predominance of plasma cells. What is the most likely disease in this case?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tuberculosis. The case describes a man with a perforation in the hard palate and features of caseous necrosis with granulation tissue, endovasculitis, and a cellular infiltration mainly of lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, and plasma cells. These findings are classic for tuberculosis infection, commonly seen in extrapulmonary sites like the oral cavity. Syphilis (choice A) typically presents with a painless ulcer and different histopathological features. Leprosy (choice C) presents with granulomas containing foamy macrophages. Scleroma (choice D) is caused by Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis and presents with chronic granulomatous inflammation.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing peptic ulcers?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.

Question 6 of 9

An enzyme process of producing two identical copies of DNA from one original DNA molecule is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Replication. In DNA replication, the original DNA molecule is unwound and each strand serves as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This results in two identical copies of the original DNA molecule. Translation (A) is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA. Transcription (B) is the process of synthesizing mRNA from DNA. Cell division (D) is the process of a cell dividing into two daughter cells, not specifically producing identical DNA copies. Therefore, replication is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the process of copying DNA to produce two identical copies.

Question 7 of 9

Which bacteria are responsible for causing tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis specifically targets the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms and can spread to other parts of the body. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is known for causing pneumonia, Neisseria meningitidis (C) causes meningitis, and Clostridium botulinum (D) causes botulism, not tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium among the choices that is associated with tuberculosis.

Question 8 of 9

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.

Question 9 of 9

The role of adhesins in gram positive bacteria is carried out by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Adhesins in gram positive bacteria are typically carried out by surface structures such as lipoteichoic acids. These molecules help the bacteria adhere to host cells or tissues. Lipoteichoic acids are specific to gram positive bacteria and play a crucial role in initiating infections. Fimbriae, flagella, and short chain mycolic acids are not primarily responsible for adhesion in gram positive bacteria. Fimbriae are more commonly found in gram negative bacteria, flagella are involved in motility, and short chain mycolic acids are specific to mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is A, lipoteichoic acids.

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