ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria produce a toxin that causes the disease botulism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the neurotoxin responsible for botulism. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not botulism. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are not associated with botulism. Clostridium botulinum is the only bacterium known to produce the toxin causing botulism.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria (Salmonella enterica, Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli) are known to cause foodborne illnesses. Salmonella causes symptoms like diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramps. Clostridium botulinum produces a toxin leading to botulism, a severe illness affecting the nervous system. Escherichia coli strains like E. coli O157:H7 can cause food poisoning with symptoms such as bloody diarrhea. Therefore, all the listed bacteria can cause foodborne illnesses due to their ability to contaminate food and infect individuals.
Question 3 of 9
Infection of many people with known epidemiological link' is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidemic. This term refers to the widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a specific community or region at a particular time. In this scenario, the infection of many people with a known epidemiological link indicates a localized outbreak within a defined population. Explanation: 1. Epidemic specifically refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population. 2. The term "known epidemiological link" suggests a clear connection between the cases, indicating a common source or mode of transmission within a specific group. 3. Endemic (choice A) refers to the constant presence of a disease within a specific geographic area or population. 4. Pandemic (choice B) refers to a global outbreak of a disease that spreads across countries and continents. 5. Sporadic disease (choice D) refers to isolated cases that occur infrequently and without a clear pattern. In summary, an epidemic best describes the situation of many people being
Question 4 of 9
The complex invaginations of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane are called:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mesosomes. Mesosomes are infoldings of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane that play a role in cell division and respiration. This structure is not found in eukaryotic cells. Cristae (A) are infoldings of the mitochondrial inner membrane in eukaryotic cells. Granum (B) refers to stacks of thylakoid membranes in chloroplasts. Flagella (C) are whip-like structures used for movement and are not related to cytoplasmic membrane invaginations. Therefore, the correct answer is D as mesosomes are unique to prokaryotic cells and are involved in various cellular processes.
Question 5 of 9
A 65 y.o. woman complains of complicated mouth opening following foot trauma 10 days ago. Next day she ate with difficulties, there were muscles tension of back, the back of the head and abdomen. On the third day there was tension of all muscle groups, generalized convulsions every 10-15 min. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Tetanus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. Tetanus is characterized by muscle stiffness, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), muscle spasms, and convulsions. The progression of symptoms from muscle tension to generalized convulsions every 10-15 min is classic for tetanus. Tetania (Choice B) is similar but typically presents with more subtle muscle contractions rather than convulsions. Meningoencephalitis (Choice C) presents with fever, headache, and altered mental status, not the muscle symptoms described. Hemorrhagic stroke (Choice D) presents with sudden onset neurological deficits like weakness or sensory changes, not the muscle symptoms described.
Question 6 of 9
When preparing a dental plaque smear and staining it according to the gram method, a student during microscopy detected there various violet and pink microorganisms. What structural component of microorganisms causes different response to stains?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. In the Gram staining method, the primary differentiation of bacteria is based on the composition of their cell walls. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet dye and appears purple under the microscope. On the other hand, Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane, which allows the crystal violet dye to be washed out during the decolorization step and take up the counterstain safranin, appearing pink. The different responses to stains are primarily due to the structural differences in the cell walls of these two types of bacteria. Summary: - Choice A: Cell wall is correct because it determines the differential staining in Gram staining. - Choice B: Cytoplasm is incorrect as it does not directly influence the staining properties of bacteria. - Choice C: Cytoplasmic membrane is incorrect as it is not the main structural
Question 7 of 9
A wound culture grew Gram-positive rods with central spores. The bacteria were catalase-positive and aerobic. Identify the microorganism.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods with central spores, catalase-positive, and aerobic growth characteristics are indicative of Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is known for its central spores and ability to grow aerobically. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium tetani is a Gram-positive rod with terminal spores and is anaerobic. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci and catalase-negative. D: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod and catalase-positive, but is not associated with central spores.
Question 8 of 9
Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Overcrowding. Overcrowding can facilitate the spread of infectious diseases due to increased contact between individuals, making it easier for pathogens to transmit from one person to another. This is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism as it directly impacts the likelihood of disease transmission. Environmental pollution (B) may impact overall health but is not a direct risk factor for infectious diseases. Physical fatigue (C) weakens the immune system but is not a direct facilitator of disease transmission. Ionizing radiation (D) can cause cellular damage but is not a typical risk factor for infectious diseases.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with fever, chill and cough. From his sputum the ovoid Gram-negative bipolar- stained bacilli with a delicate capsule were secured. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plague. The presence of ovoid Gram-negative bipolar-stained bacilli with a delicate capsule in the sputum is characteristic of Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of plague. Plague presents with symptoms like fever, chills, and cough. Plague is a zoonotic disease usually transmitted through fleas from rodents. The other choices (B: Tuberculosis, C: Leptospirosis, D: Brucellosis) can be ruled out based on the specific description of the bacteria in the sputum. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is not Gram-negative. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira, which are spirochetes and not ovoid bacilli. Brucellosis is caused by Brucella species, which are small, coccobacilli and not ovoid bacilli.