ATI RN
openstax microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing pneumonia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Escherichia coli can all cause pneumonia, but through different mechanisms. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, M. tuberculosis can lead to tuberculosis-related pneumonia, and E. coli can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can be responsible for causing pneumonia, making option D the correct choice. Option A, Streptococcus pneumoniae, is correct but does not cover all possible causes of pneumonia. Option B, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is too specific and does not include other common causes. Option C, Escherichia coli, is also a possible cause of pneumonia but does not account for all potential pathogens.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's preliminary diagnosis is toxoplasmosis. What material was used for diagnostics of this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. Toxoplasmosis is diagnosed through serological tests that detect specific antibodies in the blood. These antibodies indicate exposure to the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. Feces, urine, and duodenal contents are not typically used for diagnosing toxoplasmosis as the parasite is not commonly found in these samples. Blood is the primary material used as it provides the necessary antibodies for accurate diagnosis.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following drugs is not used to treat influenza?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following bacteria IS NOT associated with skin infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.
Question 5 of 9
Sanitary bacteriological research on water by the membrane filter method revealed two red colonies on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of analyzed water were passed. Calculate the coli index and coli titer of the analyzed water:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 4 and 250. Coli index is calculated by dividing the number of red colonies by the volume of water analyzed, which gives 2 red colonies / 500 ml = 4. Coli titer is the reciprocal of the coli index, so it is 1 / 4 = 250. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation steps for determining the coli index and coli titer. B has the correct coli index but incorrect coli titer. C and D have the values reversed, leading to incorrect results.
Question 6 of 9
The incubation period for hepatitis B is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Up to 3 months. Hepatitis B has an average incubation period of 60-90 days, which aligns with the timeframe of up to 3 months. This period refers to the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms. One week to 10 days (choice A) is too short for hepatitis B, as it typically takes longer to manifest. One month to 45 days (choice B) is also shorter than the average incubation period for hepatitis B. Up to 6 months (choice D) is too long for hepatitis B, as the virus typically shows symptoms within 3 months.
Question 7 of 9
A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis of visual nerve arose. What drug has caused this by-effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures typically above 45°C. They have specialized enzymes and cellular structures that allow them to survive and even thrive in extreme heat. Psychrophiles (A) are adapted to cold temperatures, mesophiles (B) thrive at moderate temperatures, and halophiles (D) prefer high salt concentrations, making them unsuitable for extreme heat survival. Therefore, Thermophiles are the only bacteria among the choices that are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat.