ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses due to its presence in undercooked poultry and unpasteurized milk. Campylobacteriosis is a leading cause of bacterial gastroenteritis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) causes pneumonia, not foodborne illnesses. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C) causes tuberculosis, not foodborne illnesses. Haemophilus influenzae (D) can cause respiratory infections but is not commonly associated with foodborne illnesses.
Question 2 of 9
Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the Cytoplasm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm. This is due to their complex structure that allows them to carry out their replication process in the cytoplasm of the host cell. Other choices are incorrect because poxviruses specifically replicate in the cytoplasm and do not require the nucleus for replication, ruling out choice B. Choice C is incorrect because poxviruses consistently replicate in the cytoplasm regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is A.
Question 3 of 9
Bacterial spores are used for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Survival. Bacterial spores are specialized structures that bacteria form to survive harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures or lack of nutrients. Spores are not used for protection against phagocytosis (A) as they are dormant structures and not actively involved in defense mechanisms. They are not for reproduction (B) as spores are a form of bacterial reproduction but not the primary purpose of spore formation. Spores do not serve as nutrient storage (D) as they are mainly used for survival during unfavorable conditions.
Question 4 of 9
The complex of non-specific innate defense factors acting against number of infectious agents is known as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Innate immunity (natural resistance). Innate immunity refers to the non-specific defense mechanisms that act against a variety of infectious agents. This includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. Adaptive immunity (A) is specific and involves the production of antibodies and immune memory (B), which are not part of the initial non-specific response. Antibodies (C) are part of the adaptive immune response and are produced in response to specific pathogens, not part of the non-specific innate defense factors.
Question 5 of 9
Disinfection with chemicals acting on cell surface:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenols. Phenols act on the cell surface by disrupting cell membranes and denaturing proteins, leading to cell death. Soaps (A) work by lifting dirt and microbes off surfaces, not directly acting on cell surfaces. Amines (C) are typically used as disinfectants targeting specific enzymes in microbes, not cell surfaces. Polymyxin (D) is an antibiotic that works by disrupting cell membranes internally, not on the cell surface.
Question 6 of 9
A 32 year old patient complains about heartburn and dull pain in the epigastrium that appear 2-3 hours after meal. Exacerbations happen in spring and in autumn. The patient has food intolerance of eggs and fish. Objectively: stomach palpation reveals painfulness in the gastroduodenal area. Electrophasoduodenoscopy revealed a 5 mm ulcer on the anterior wall of duodenum. Urease test is positive. What is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 7 of 9
A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites
Question 8 of 9
A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the disease tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis as it specifically infects the lungs and can spread to other parts of the body. Mycobacterium leprae (A) causes leprosy, Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) causes pneumonia, and Clostridium botulinum (D) causes botulism, making them incorrect choices for tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis has unique characteristics and mechanisms that enable it to cause tuberculosis, such as its ability to evade the immune system and form granulomas in the lungs.