ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 3 of 9
Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.
Question 4 of 9
What is the role of bacterial ribosomes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins through a process called translation. This is a crucial step in gene expression, where amino acids are assembled into polypeptide chains. Choice B (DNA replication) is incorrect because ribosomes are not involved in DNA replication. Choice C (Flagella formation) is incorrect as ribosomes do not play a direct role in flagella formation. Choice D (Toxin production) is incorrect as ribosomes are not directly involved in producing toxins.
Question 5 of 9
The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention, treatment, and/or diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacotherapeutics focuses on the selection and use of drugs for disease prevention, treatment, and diagnosis. It involves determining the most effective and safe medications for specific conditions based on patient factors. Toxicology (B) is the study of the adverse effects of chemicals, including drugs. Pharmacokinetics (C) focuses on drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in the body. Pharmacy (D) involves the preparation and dispensing of medications, but does not specifically address drug selection and application for disease management. Therefore, pharmacotherapeutics is the most suitable discipline for addressing the use of drugs in disease management.
Question 6 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics indicate Staphylococcus species. Specifically, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and a frequent cause of wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it less likely in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus faecalis are both Gram-positive cocci but are catalase-negative, making them less likely causative agents.
Question 7 of 9
Which bacterium is known for producing a green pigment called pyocyanin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is known for producing pyocyanin, a green pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice A) produces golden-yellow pigments, not green. Escherichia coli (choice C) and Clostridium difficile (choice D) do not produce pyocyanin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the characteristic pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 8 of 9
The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytopathic effect. This is because polioviruses cause visible changes in infected cells, leading to cell damage and death, known as cytopathic effect. This is a key characteristic of viral infection. Choice B (Cytotoxic effect) is incorrect as it refers to the toxicity of a substance to cells, not the specific effect of polioviruses. Choice C (Cytolytic effect) is incorrect as it specifically refers to cell lysis, which is not the primary mechanism of poliovirus infection. Choice D (They Don't Change The Cell Cultures) is incorrect because polioviruses do indeed cause changes in cell cultures due to their cytopathic effect.
Question 9 of 9
Microscopic examination of a microbial culture revealed fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that get violet-blue Gram's stain. What microorganisms were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridia. Fusiform spore-forming microorganisms that stain violet-blue with Gram's stain are characteristic of Clostridia. Clostridia are anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria known for their ability to form spores and cause diseases such as tetanus and botulism. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are spherical, not fusiform, and typically do not form spores. C: Spirochaete are spiral-shaped bacteria and do not typically form spores. D: Actinomycete are filamentous bacteria that do not typically form spores and do not stain violet-blue with Gram's stain.