ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium causes whooping cough by infecting the respiratory tract. It produces toxins that lead to severe coughing fits characteristic of the disease. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) causes pneumonia, and Neisseria meningitidis (D) causes meningitis, not whooping cough. B. pertussis is the only bacterium specifically associated with whooping cough.
Question 3 of 9
Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 4 of 9
All is true for bacterial spores EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacterial spores are NOT used for cell division. Bacterial spores are dormant, resistant forms of bacteria that are formed in response to harsh environmental conditions. They are not involved in cell division but rather serve as a survival mechanism for the bacteria. A: They can deform the cell or not - This is true. Bacterial spores can deform the cell or not depending on the conditions. B: They can be terminal, subterminal, and central - This is true. Bacterial spores can be located at different positions within the bacterial cell. D: They are formed for 6-8h - This is incorrect. The formation of bacterial spores can take variable time periods depending on the species and environmental conditions.
Question 5 of 9
Allergies to sea food, eggs, etc are an example of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, allergens trigger the production of IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell and basophil degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This causes immediate allergic symptoms. Seafood and eggs are common allergens that can elicit this response. B: Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies targeting cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. C: Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. D: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is cell-mediated and involves T cells causing inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.
Question 6 of 9
Viruses that are mainly transmitted through sexual contact are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Papillomaviruses. Papillomaviruses are primarily transmitted through sexual contact, as they infect the skin and mucous membranes of the genital area. This transmission route is well-documented through research and epidemiological studies. Arenaviruses (A) are primarily transmitted through contact with infected rodents, not sexual contact. Togaviruses (B) are mainly transmitted by mosquitoes and ticks. Polyomaviruses (D) are typically spread through respiratory secretions or contaminated urine, not through sexual contact. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for viruses transmitted mainly through sexual contact is Papillomaviruses (C).
Question 7 of 9
Which bacterium is known for producing a green pigment called pyocyanin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is known for producing pyocyanin, a green pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice A) produces golden-yellow pigments, not green. Escherichia coli (choice C) and Clostridium difficile (choice D) do not produce pyocyanin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the characteristic pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following infections are typical for the upper respiratory tract?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic atrophic rhinitis. This infection is typical for the upper respiratory tract as it affects the nasal mucosa and sinuses. It is characterized by inflammation and atrophy of the nasal mucosa. Psittacosis (A) is a zoonotic infection transmitted from birds, affecting the lungs. Mycoplasma bronchitis (B) is a lower respiratory tract infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Legionnaires disease (D) is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella bacteria. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to the upper respiratory tract.