ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the plague?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.
Question 2 of 9
A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following methods can be used for diagnosis of respiratory tract infections
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Culture of samples from the respiratory tract can identify specific pathogens, Immunofluorescence can detect viral antigens, and PCR can amplify and detect specific DNA/RNA sequences. Using all methods together provides a comprehensive approach for diagnosing respiratory tract infections. Culture alone may miss fastidious organisms, Immunofluorescence has limitations in sensitivity, and PCR requires specific primers. Therefore, combining these methods increases the likelihood of accurate diagnosis by covering a range of pathogens and improving sensitivity and specificity.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.
Question 5 of 9
The infectious (non-sterile) immunity is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because infectious (non-sterile) immunity is achieved through the persistence of the infectious agent in the body, allowing the immune system to continuously recognize and combat the pathogen. This type of immunity provides long-lasting protection against future infections by the same agent. Choice A (cross-reactivity of antibodies) is incorrect as it refers to the ability of antibodies to recognize similar antigens, not necessarily related to infectious immunity. Choice B (toxemia and formation of antitoxic antibodies) is incorrect as it specifically relates to toxins produced by pathogens and the corresponding antibody response, not the persistence of the infectious agent itself. Choice D (neutralization of infectious agent) is incorrect as it describes the process of antibodies binding to and inactivating pathogens, but it does not necessarily lead to long-term immunity through the persistence of the infectious agent.
Question 6 of 9
Microscopy of a smear taken from the film that appeared on the peptone water 6 hours after seeding and culturing of a fecal sample in a thermostat revealed mobile gram-negative bacteria curved in form of a comma that didn't make spores or capsules. What microorganisms were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrios. Vibrios are gram-negative curved bacteria that are motile and do not form spores or capsules. The description of the bacteria in the question fits the characteristics of Vibrios. Vibrios are commonly found in aquatic environments and some species can cause gastrointestinal infections in humans. B: Spirochetes are also gram-negative curved bacteria, but they are spiral-shaped and have unique axial filaments for motility. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of spirochetes. C: Clostridia are gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria. The question specifically states that the bacteria are gram-negative and do not form spores, ruling out Clostridia. D: Corynebacteria are gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria. The description in the question does not match the characteristics of Corynebacteria.
Question 7 of 9
The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.
Question 8 of 9
A fecal sample cultured on Endo agar revealed colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Shigella (Choice C) because it matches the description of being Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. Shigella is a non-lactose fermenting, Gram-negative rod that typically produces colorless colonies on Endo agar. Salmonella (Choice A) and Escherichia coli (Choice B) are both lactose fermenters and would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Proteus (Choice D) is also a lactose fermenter and would appear pink on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, Shigella is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of polypeptide. This is because the capsule is composed of a protein-based material that surrounds the bacterium, providing protection and aiding in its virulence. Polysaccharides, lipids, and the absence of capsules are not characteristic of Bacillus anthracis' capsule structure, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.