ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are responsible for causing the disease known as leprosy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy because it has a unique ability to infect the skin, nerves, and mucous membranes. It is an acid-fast bacillus that multiplies very slowly, leading to a chronic infection. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, Escherichia coli (choice B) causes various gastrointestinal infections, and Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) causes skin infections and other diseases, but none of these bacteria are associated with leprosy.
Question 2 of 9
A man is ill with a protozoan disease characterized by cerebral affection and loss of sight. Blood analysis revealed halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends. This disease is caused by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. Toxoplasma gondii causes Toxoplasmosis, a protozoan disease that can affect the brain and lead to vision loss. The halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends described in the blood analysis are characteristic of Toxoplasma parasites. Toxoplasma infection commonly occurs through ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with infected cat feces. Leishmania causes Leishmaniasis, Lamblia causes Giardiasis, Amoeba causes Amebiasis, and Trichomonad causes Trichomoniasis, none of which match the symptoms and blood analysis findings described in the question.
Question 3 of 9
Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, transplacental mechanism. Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placenta, infecting the fetus during pregnancy. This mechanism allows the bacteria to be transmitted from mother to baby in utero. Alimentary mechanism (A) involves ingestion of contaminated food, not direct transfer between individuals. Transmission (B) is a broad term that doesn't specify the specific route of Listeria transmission. Physical contact (D) is not a common mode of Listeria transmission compared to transplacental transmission in the case of maternal-fetal infection.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a host-dependent bacterium?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rickettsia. Rickettsia is a host-dependent bacterium because it requires living cells of a host organism to survive and replicate. This bacterium is an obligate intracellular pathogen, meaning it cannot grow outside of a host cell. A: Mycoplasma and B: Ureaplasma are not host-dependent as they can grow and reproduce in cell-free environments due to possessing their own unique cell wall structures. D: Micrococcus is a free-living bacterium that can survive and reproduce independently without relying on a host organism.
Question 5 of 9
A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. Dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete Leptospira interrogans and is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by animal urine, such as in this case of fishing. The symptoms described match those of leptospirosis, including high fever, headache, muscle pain, jaundice, hemorrhagic rash, and bloody urine. The calf muscle pain is a characteristic symptom of leptospirosis known as "Weil's disease." Yersiniosis (B) typically presents with abdominal symptoms, Salmonellosis (C) with gastrointestinal symptoms, and Brucellosis (D) with flu-like symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms and history provided, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 7 of 9
A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,
Question 8 of 9
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.
Question 9 of 9
During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.