Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent is Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Step 1: Presence of rod-shaped bacteria indicates a bacillus. Step 2: Polar granules suggest metachromatic granules seen in C. diphtheriae. Step 3: C. diphtheriae causes diphtheria, which presents with sore throat. Summary: B is incorrect as S. pneumoniae is a cocci, not a bacillus. C is incorrect as H. influenzae is a pleomorphic coccobacillus. D is incorrect as K. pneumoniae is a large, encapsulated bacillus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Shigella is a nonmotile bacterium. 2. This lack of motility is a key characteristic used to differentiate it from other enteric bacteria. 3. Nonmotile nature of Shigella helps it to cause infections by invading the intestinal epithelial cells. 4. Therefore, choice C is correct as Shigella is indeed nonmotile. Summary: A: Incorrect - Shigella does not produce hydrogen sulfide. B: Incorrect - Shigella does not ferment lactose. D: Incorrect - Shigella is not mannitol positive.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) adheres to the intestinal wall using bundle-forming pili. 2. EPEC produces toxins that disrupt cell structure and function, leading to diarrhea. 3. Shigella spp. invade intestinal cells, Salmonella spp. invade and multiply within cells, and Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing profuse watery diarrhea. Summary: A, C, and D choices are incorrect because they do not specifically adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins like EPEC does.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-positive cocci in chains and is catalase-negative. S. pyogenes commonly causes sore throat (pharyngitis) and fever, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and is not typically associated with pharyngitis. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is not typically found in chains and is rarely a cause of acute pharyngitis. Micrococcus luteus (D) is not typically associated with pharyngitis and is catalase-positive.