ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria are associated with the disease tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is specifically associated with causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae (choice A) is associated with leprosy, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice C) is associated with pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Escherichia coli (choice D) is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not associated with tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium directly linked to the disease, making it the correct choice.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.
Question 4 of 9
The presence of specific antibodies in the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination is visualized by the;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of hemagglutination. In the reaction inhibition of hemagglutination, specific antibodies bind to antigens on red blood cells, preventing their agglutination. This results in the absence of visible clumping of red blood cells, which is known as hemagglutination. Therefore, the presence of specific antibodies is visualized by the absence of hemagglutination. Incorrect Choices: A: Absence of hemolysis - Hemolysis refers to the rupture of red blood cells, which is not relevant in the context of hemagglutination. C: Presence of hemagglutination - This is the opposite of what is expected when specific antibodies are present and inhibiting hemagglutination. D: Presence of hemolysis - Again, hemolysis is not directly related to the inhibition of hemagglutination by specific antibodies.
Question 5 of 9
Many peptic ulcers are due to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the main cause of peptic ulcers by damaging the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum. It secretes enzymes that weaken the mucosal barrier, allowing stomach acid to cause damage. Salmonella typhi (A) causes typhoid fever, not peptic ulcers. Shigella boydii (C) causes dysentery, not peptic ulcers. Salmonella enterica (D) causes food poisoning, not peptic ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on its direct association with peptic ulcer formation.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 7 of 9
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.
Question 8 of 9
The specific antidote to botulinum toxin is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: antitoxin. Antitoxin is the specific antidote to botulinum toxin as it helps neutralize the toxin in the body. Sodium bicarbonate (A) is used to treat acidosis, pralidoxime (C) is used for organophosphate poisoning, and naloxone (D) is used for opioid overdose. Antitoxin directly targets and counteracts the botulinum toxin, making it the appropriate antidote in cases of botulism.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.