Which bacteria are known for their ability to fix nitrogen?

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which bacteria are known for their ability to fix nitrogen?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Azotobacter species. Azotobacter are known for their ability to fix nitrogen through the process of nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use. Bacillus cereus is not known for nitrogen fixation. Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that causes botulism and does not fix nitrogen. Escherichia coli is a common gut bacterium but does not have the ability to fix nitrogen. Thus, Azotobacter species is the correct choice based on its unique ability to fix nitrogen.

Question 2 of 9

Differentiating media are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Endo, Gassner, and Levin are all examples of differential media used in microbiology. These media contain specific components that allow for the differentiation of different types of microorganisms based on their metabolic characteristics or biochemical reactions. Lowenstein-Jensen and Petraniani (choice A) are selective media for mycobacteria, not differential. Apoholate-citrate agar and Brilliant-green phenol-red Lactose agar (choice B) are selective media for Salmonella and E. coli, respectively, not differential. Therefore, the correct choice is C as it includes examples of differential media commonly used for microbial identification.

Question 3 of 9

On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with fever and diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.

Question 5 of 9

All is true for bacterial spores EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacterial spores are NOT used for cell division. Bacterial spores are dormant, resistant forms of bacteria that are formed in response to harsh environmental conditions. They are not involved in cell division but rather serve as a survival mechanism for the bacteria. A: They can deform the cell or not - This is true. Bacterial spores can deform the cell or not depending on the conditions. B: They can be terminal, subterminal, and central - This is true. Bacterial spores can be located at different positions within the bacterial cell. D: They are formed for 6-8h - This is incorrect. The formation of bacterial spores can take variable time periods depending on the species and environmental conditions.

Question 6 of 9

Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.

Question 7 of 9

A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Question 8 of 9

A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection of tetanus toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells. The Bezredka method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the antigen (tetanus toxoid) to desensitize the body and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, thereby reducing the release of allergic mediators like histamine. This prevents the cascade of events that lead to anaphylactic shock. Choice B (Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells) is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not block mediator synthesis but rather prevents the release of mediators by binding IgE. Choice C (Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen) is incorrect as the Bezredka method does not primarily focus on inducing immune tolerance but rather on preventing anaphylactic reactions. Choice D (Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific IgG) is incorrect because the Bezredka method targets IgE antibodies on mast cells

Question 9 of 9

A smear of pus from an abscess revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The culture was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What microorganism was isolated?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing abscesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (B) is Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Micrococcus luteus (C) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

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