Which bacteria are known for causing hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Clostridium difficile are all known for causing hospital-acquired infections. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections and pneumonia. Escherichia coli can lead to urinary tract infections. Clostridium difficile is associated with gastrointestinal infections. Each of these bacteria has been linked to healthcare-associated infections due to their ability to spread in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually is known to cause hospital-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that can survive and grow in low moisture conditions. It does not require a host cell and can thrive in moist environments, making it able to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Giardia lamblia (A), Balantidium coli (C), and Entamoeba histolytica (D) are all parasites that require a host to survive and reproduce, making them unable to grow on substances with very low moisture content. Trichomonas vaginalis is the only organism among the choices that fits the criteria of being able to grow on low moisture substances.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is the causative agent of gas gangrene due to its ability to produce gas and toxins in anaerobic conditions. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not gas gangrene. Clostridium perfringens stands out as the correct choice based on its specific association with gas gangrene and its pathogenic mechanisms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: active transport system. Permeases are specific carriers that actively transport molecules across a cell membrane against their concentration gradient, requiring energy input. This process is known as active transport, which is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis and allowing the cell to accumulate specific molecules. Facilitated diffusion (A) and passive transport (B) both involve the movement of molecules down their concentration gradient without the need for energy input. Simple diffusion (C) also does not involve specific carriers and relies on the natural movement of molecules from areas of high concentration to low concentration. Therefore, the correct choice is D as permeases specifically function in active transport systems.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to Ampicillin, Cefazolinum, and Azithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic known for its efficacy against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Its broad spectrum and ability to penetrate tissues make it the most advisable choice for treating secondary obstructive pyelonephritis caused by this pathogen.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CDC. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is responsible for establishing hand-washing guidelines in healthcare settings to prevent infections. CDC is a leading authority in public health and provides evidence-based recommendations. OSHA (A) focuses on workplace safety, NIAD (C) is not a recognized organization, and WHO (D) provides global health guidelines but CDC is the primary authority for hand hygiene in the US healthcare system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Burri-Gins staining technique is used to identify capsule formation in bacteria. Capsules are protective layers around bacteria that can be visualized using this staining method. Capsules are important virulence factors for pathogens like Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of plague. This technique helps in differentiating encapsulated bacteria from non-encapsulated ones. Spore formation (B), acid resistance (C), and alkali resistance (D) are not properties that can be identified using the Burri-Gins technique, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balantidiasis. The large ciliated protozoa with a kidney-shaped macronucleus described in the stool sample is consistent with Balantidium coli, the causative agent of balantidiasis. Balantidium coli is the only ciliated protozoan parasite that infects humans and presents with these specific characteristics. Giardiasis (B) is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is flagellated, not ciliated. Amoebiasis (C) is caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which has an amoeboid shape, not ciliated. Trichomoniasis (D) is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, which is a flagellated protozoan and does not have a kidney-shaped macronucleus. Hence, the correct diagnosis in this case is Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles serological test. This is because the clinical presentation of high fever, maculopapular rash, and Filatov-Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa are classic symptoms of measles. The presence of Filatov-Koplik's spots is highly specific for measles. Performing a measles serological test will help confirm the diagnosis by detecting measles-specific antibodies in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Mumps serological test - Mumps typically presents with parotitis (swelling of the parotid glands) and not with Filatov-Koplik's spots. B: Enteroviruses serological test - Enteroviruses do not typically cause Filatov-Koplik's spots or the classic triad of symptoms seen in measles. D: Influenza virus serological test - Influenza virus does not cause Filatov-Koplik's spots and the characteristic rash seen