Which bacteria are known for causing hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Clostridium difficile are all known for causing hospital-acquired infections. Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections and pneumonia. Escherichia coli can lead to urinary tract infections. Clostridium difficile is associated with gastrointestinal infections. Each of these bacteria has been linked to healthcare-associated infections due to their ability to spread in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually is known to cause hospital-acquired infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Salk and Sabin vaccines are vaccines against polio. Both Salk and Sabin vaccines are indeed vaccines specifically developed to prevent polio. The Salk vaccine is an inactivated polio vaccine, while the Sabin vaccine is an oral live attenuated vaccine. Therefore, choice B is incorrect as the Sabin vaccine is live attenuated, not inactivated. Choice C is also incorrect because the Salk vaccine is inactivated, not live attenuated. Choice D is incorrect because not all statements are true; only statement A is accurate.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Typhoid fever, Brucellosis. Both Typhoid fever and Brucellosis are bacterial infections that can lead to bacteremia, the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. In Typhoid fever, the causative agent Salmonella typhi can enter the bloodstream, causing bacteremia. Similarly, Brucellosis, caused by Brucella species, can also result in bacteremia. Choice A is incorrect because bacteremia is not typically observed in Diphtheria. Choice C, Cholera, is caused by a toxin-producing bacterium and does not usually lead to bacteremia. Choice D, Dysentery, is a condition characterized by bloody diarrhea and is primarily caused by parasites or bacteria that typically do not lead to bacteremia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Paramyxoviridae. Mumps virus is a member of the Paramyxoviridae family, based on its characteristics such as structure, genome organization, and replication cycle. Paramyxoviruses are enveloped, non-segmented RNA viruses with a helical nucleocapsid. They replicate in the cytoplasm and bud from the host cell membrane. Coronaviridae (A) are a different family of viruses with distinct characteristics. Picornaviridae (B) and Orthomyxoviridae (C) are also different families with unique features that do not match those of the mumps virus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tuberculosis and mycobacterioses. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis, and other mycobacteria can survive in the soil for extended periods. Here's the rationale: 1. Mycobacteria have a waxy cell wall that provides resistance to harsh environmental conditions. 2. The slow growth rate of mycobacteria allows them to persist in the soil for long periods. 3. Tuberculosis and mycobacterioses are known to be transmitted through environmental exposure, including soil. 4. Colibacillosis and cholera (Choice C) are caused by enteric bacteria that do not survive well in soil. 5. Leptospirosis and plague (Choice D) are bacterial diseases transmitted through animal hosts and are not known to be soil-borne.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: ECHO virus infection. ECHO virus is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, meaning the virus is passed from feces to the mouth. This transmission occurs through contaminated food, water, or surfaces. Relapsed fever and spotted fever are generally transmitted by arthropod vectors like ticks. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, spreads through respiratory droplets. Therefore, the fecal-oral route is not applicable to these diseases.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: active transport system. Permeases are specific carriers that actively transport molecules across a cell membrane against their concentration gradient, requiring energy input. This process is known as active transport, which is essential for maintaining cellular homeostasis and allowing the cell to accumulate specific molecules. Facilitated diffusion (A) and passive transport (B) both involve the movement of molecules down their concentration gradient without the need for energy input. Simple diffusion (C) also does not involve specific carriers and relies on the natural movement of molecules from areas of high concentration to low concentration. Therefore, the correct choice is D as permeases specifically function in active transport systems.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. The presence of Gram-positive rods with terminal spores resembling drumsticks indicates Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus. This bacterium forms spores at one end, giving it a drumstick appearance under the microscope. Clostridium perfringens (B) and Clostridium botulinum (D) do not have terminal spores. Bacillus anthracis (C) forms spores but typically appears as a square-ended or bamboo stick shape. Therefore, based on the microscopy findings, Clostridium tetani is the most likely microorganism responsible for the wound infection.