ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing endospores?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium belongs to the Clostridium genus, known for its ability to produce endospores. Endospores are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium known for causing various infections, but it does not form endospores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals, but it does not produce endospores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, but it also does not form endospores.
Question 2 of 9
The fluidlike portion of a cell is referred to as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cytoplasmic membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the fluidlike portion of a cell that separates the cell's contents from the external environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintains cell shape, and provides protection. Rationale: 1. Cytosol (choice A) is the liquid component of the cytoplasm where organelles are suspended, not the fluidlike portion of the cell. 2. Nucleoplasm (choice B) refers to the liquid component of the nucleus, not the entire cell. 3. Inclusion (choice D) refers to non-living substances within the cell that are not considered the fluidlike portion. Summary: The cytoplasmic membrane is the correct answer as it encompasses the entire cell and is responsible for maintaining cell integrity and regulating transport. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the fluidlike portion of the cell.
Question 3 of 9
Streptococcus pneumoniae are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alpha-hemolytic streptococci. Streptococcus pneumoniae are classified as alpha-hemolytic streptococci based on their ability to partially break down red blood cells, causing a greenish discoloration on blood agar plates. This distinguishes them from beta-hemolytic streptococci, which completely break down red blood cells. Streptococcus pneumoniae are not resistant to bile (choice A), as they are bile soluble. They are not stained by the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method (choice C), which is used for acid-fast bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. They are sensitive to optochin (choice D), which is a key differentiating factor in identifying them from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
Question 4 of 9
If skin-allergic samples for tuberculosis are negative:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Tuberculin is introduced) is correct: 1. Tuberculin test helps identify individuals with latent TB infection. 2. Negative skin-allergic samples suggest absence of active TB. 3. Introducing tuberculin can help confirm latent TB infection. 4. Antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. 5. Vaccines are not administered for TB diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. - Choice C is incorrect as vaccines are not used for TB diagnosis. - Choice D is incorrect as introducing tuberculin is the appropriate step in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
The time response measures all of the following except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.
Question 6 of 9
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.
Question 7 of 9
Growth of bacteria is a result of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The growth of bacteria is a result of water adsorption because water is essential for various metabolic processes within the bacterial cells, such as nutrient uptake, energy production, and waste removal. Water serves as a medium for chemical reactions to occur and provides structural support to the bacteria. Without sufficient water, bacteria cannot thrive and reproduce. A: Air consumption is incorrect because while bacteria may require oxygen for respiration, it is not the primary factor for their growth. C: Enzyme production is incorrect because enzymes are important for various cellular functions but do not directly influence bacterial growth. D: Radio isotopes are incorrect as they are not essential for bacterial growth and can even be harmful to bacterial cells.
Question 8 of 9
A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due
Question 9 of 9
A large-scale reaction with parapertussis and pertussis diagnosticums was made in order to make serological diagnostics of the whooping cough. At the bottom of the test-tubes with diagnosticum of Bordetella parapertussis a granular sediment formed. What antibodies did this reaction reveal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Precipitins. When a granular sediment forms at the bottom of the test-tubes, it indicates the formation of antigen-antibody complexes that are insoluble and precipitate out of the solution. Precipitins are antibodies that specifically react with antigens to form insoluble complexes. Agglutinins cause clumping of cells, opsonins enhance phagocytosis, and bacteriolysins lyse bacteria. These processes do not result in the formation of a granular sediment, making them incorrect choices in this context.