ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing an exotoxin that causes severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed are capable of producing exotoxins that can cause severe diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins that lead to diarrhea. Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxin causing botulism, which can also result in diarrhea. Vibrio cholerae is known for producing cholera toxin, a potent exotoxin that causes severe watery diarrhea. The other choices are incorrect because each bacterium listed is capable of producing a toxin that can cause diarrhea.
Question 2 of 9
On the territory of a certain region the mass death of rodents was observed. It was assumed that it may be caused by plague agent. What serological reaction should be applied for quick determination of antigen of this epizootic agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination reaction. This is the most suitable serological reaction for the quick determination of the antigen of the epizootic agent causing mass rodent deaths. In agglutination reaction, antibodies cause the clumping of antigens, allowing for easy visual detection of the presence of the specific antigen. This is efficient for rapid diagnosis in cases of suspected infectious diseases like plague. A: Precipitation reaction is more suitable for identifying soluble antigens, not for quick determination of a specific antigen in this scenario. C: Reaction of passive hemagglutination is used for measuring the presence of antibodies, not antigens. D: Bordet-Gengou test is a specific test for the identification of Bordetella pertussis bacterium, not suitable for this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with diarrhea and dehydration. A fecal smear stained by Gram's method revealed Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacteria. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera, which presents with severe watery diarrhea leading to dehydration. The characteristic comma-shaped (curved rod) appearance of Gram-negative bacteria is typical of Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces the cholera toxin, leading to the excessive secretion of fluid into the intestines. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever with symptoms like sustained fever, not watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Escherichia coli can cause various types of infections, but typically not severe watery diarrhea like cholera.
Question 4 of 9
The first grade pupils were examined in order to sort out children for tuberculosis revaccination. What test was applied for this purpose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to detect tuberculosis infection by injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the skin and checking for a reaction. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to tuberculosis. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Schick test is used to determine immunity to diphtheria, not tuberculosis. C: Anthraxine test is used for anthrax, not tuberculosis. D: Burnet test is not a recognized medical test for tuberculosis.
Question 5 of 9
For treatment of Anthrax are used
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the treatment for Anthrax involves using antibiotics such as penicillins, tetracyclines, and macrolides to target the bacteria. Anti-anthrax gamma-globulins and immune-serum are used to provide passive immunity, but they are not the primary treatment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the necessary components for treating Anthrax. Overall, using a combination of antibiotics and immune-based treatments like gamma-globulins and immune-serum provides a comprehensive approach to managing Anthrax infection.
Question 6 of 9
In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.
Question 7 of 9
Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sporadic disease. Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is considered sporadic because it occurs in a random and isolated manner, with no clear pattern or connection between cases. It is not classified as an epidemic (A) because it does not involve a sudden increase in the number of cases within a specific population. It is also not endemic (C) as endemic diseases are constantly present in a particular region or population. Lastly, it is not a pandemic (D) which refers to a global outbreak affecting a large number of people across different countries.
Question 8 of 9
Your patient is a 22-year-old man. The patient reports that two weeks after unprotected sexual contact, a small ulcer appeared on its penis. The local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Dark field microscopic examination of the ulcer secretions was performed. The test reveals presence of motile, curved spirochete. The most common causative agent of the disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. The scenario describes symptoms of primary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum. The presence of a painless ulcer (chancre) and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are characteristic of syphilis. Dark field microscopic examination showing motile, curved spirochetes is highly specific for Treponema pallidum. Incorrect explanations: A: Chlamydia trachomatis typically causes urethritis or cervicitis, not painless ulcers. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, which presents with purulent discharge, not painless ulcers. D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes, leading to painful ulcers and vesicles, not painless ulcers seen in syphilis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-positive diplococci. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-positive diplococci suggest a pneumococcal infection. Step 2: Catalase-negative indicates Streptococcus. Step 3: Alpha-hemolysis matches S. pneumoniae's characteristics. Therefore, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive, Neisseria meningitidis (C) is Gram-negative, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is not diplococci or alpha-hemolytic.