Which bacteria are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions?

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microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing botulism and produces highly heat-resistant spores, while Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of anthrax and also forms spores. Choice A is incorrect because only Clostridium botulinum is mentioned, not Bacillus anthracis. Choice B is incorrect because only Bacillus anthracis is mentioned, not Clostridium botulinum. Choice D is incorrect as it states that none of the bacteria can form spores, which is false based on the characteristics of Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis.

Question 2 of 9

The causative agent of typhoid fever is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi, specifically transmitted through contaminated food and water. Shigella dysenteriae causes bacillary dysentery, Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, and Escherichia coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, but not typhoid fever. Identifying the causative agent is crucial for effective treatment and prevention strategies.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shigella dysenteriae. This bacteria produces the Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with the ribosomes. Shigella dysenteriae causes severe gastrointestinal illness. The other choices, B: Clostridium botulinum, produces a neurotoxin that blocks neurotransmitter release. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia and other respiratory infections. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis by infecting the lungs. Thus, based on the toxin production and mode of action, Shigella dysenteriae is the correct answer.

Question 4 of 9

This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.

Question 5 of 9

Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and bones. The correct answer is A: tropics, as these infections are more commonly found in warm and humid regions. Fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses thrive in tropical climates due to the favorable conditions for their growth and transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because deserts (B) have dry conditions not conducive to fungal growth, forests of the Northern Hemisphere (C) have varying climates that may not support the specific fungi causing subcutaneous mycoses, and the Rocky Mountains (D) are not typically associated with the high humidity required for these infections.

Question 6 of 9

A wound smear from a patient revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters. The culture was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. 2. Catalase-positive indicates staphylococci since streptococci are catalase-negative. 3. Coagulase-positive further confirms Staphylococcus aureus, distinguishing it from other staphylococci. Summary: B is incorrect as Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. C is incorrect as Micrococcus luteus is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D is incorrect as Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Question 7 of 9

The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: intravenous administration. This route bypasses the first-pass metabolism, allowing the drug to directly enter the bloodstream for immediate distribution. In contrast, on the skin (A) and sublingual (D) routes have slower absorption rates due to barriers like skin layers or mucous membranes. Intramuscular (C) absorption is slower than intravenous due to slower perfusion rates in muscle tissues. Overall, intravenous administration provides the fastest and most direct route for drug absorption, making it the most rapid method.

Question 8 of 9

Sanitary control is applied to monitor the quality of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sanitary control is crucial for monitoring the quality of a wide range of essential services to ensure public health and safety. Food safety, drinking water quality, cleanliness in restaurants, hygiene in healthcare settings, and transportation systems all fall under the purview of sanitary control. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate choice. Option B is incorrect because it does not include monitoring restaurants, health care services, and transport, which are important aspects of sanitary control. Option C is incorrect as it excludes transportation, an essential area that requires sanitary monitoring. Option D is incorrect as it does not cover health care services, which are critical for ensuring public health and safety.

Question 9 of 9

In which of the following especially dangerous infections, the respiratory tract is not damaged:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cholera. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae and primarily affects the intestines, leading to severe watery diarrhea and dehydration. It does not damage the respiratory tract. Choice A, Tularemia, affects the respiratory tract and other organs. Choice B, Plague, can cause respiratory symptoms like cough and difficulty breathing. Choice C, Anthrax, can affect the respiratory tract if inhaled in its spore form.

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