Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are capable of forming spores to survive in extreme conditions. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing botulism and produces highly heat-resistant spores, while Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of anthrax and also forms spores. Choice A is incorrect because only Clostridium botulinum is mentioned, not Bacillus anthracis. Choice B is incorrect because only Bacillus anthracis is mentioned, not Clostridium botulinum. Choice D is incorrect as it states that none of the bacteria can form spores, which is false based on the characteristics of Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan with two nuclei found in the stool. It commonly causes chronic diarrhea. The other choices are incorrect because B: Entamoeba histolytica causes dysentery, not chronic diarrhea; C: Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically found in stool; D: Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan, not flagellated.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. Firstly, it is important to note that Entamoeba gingivalis is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in carious cavities. Secondly, Entamoeba gingivalis belongs to the Sarcodina class, which is characterized by their amoeboid movement using pseudopods. This protozoa is associated with oral health issues, particularly in individuals with poor oral hygiene. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: B: Entamoeba histolutica is known for causing amoebic dysentery, not commonly associated with oral cavities. C: Entamoeba coli is typically found in the human large intestine, not in oral cavities. D: Amoeba proteus is a free-living amoeba commonly used in laboratory studies and not typically associated with oral cavity infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolation on cell cultures. This method is the gold standard for routine mumps diagnosis as it involves isolating the virus in cell cultures to confirm the presence of the mumps virus. PCR (choice A) is used for detecting viral RNA, not for routine diagnosis. ELISA (choice C) detects antibodies, not the virus itself. Immunofluorescence method (choice D) is used for visualizing viral antigens but is not as reliable as isolating the virus in cell cultures for diagnosis.