ATI RN
Quizlet Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment should the nurse prioritize for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client receives total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is critical due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions, which can lead to hyperglycemia. This condition arises because TPN delivers concentrated nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the digestive system, and the body may struggle to regulate sugar levels effectively without proper insulin response. Potassium levels, while important in overall electrolyte balance, are less immediately impacted by TPN compared to glucose, as potassium imbalances typically develop over time rather than acutely from TPN initiation. Mental status assessments are valuable for neurological conditions but lack direct relevance to TPN's metabolic effects. Similarly, blood pressure monitoring is essential for cardiovascular health but isn't the primary concern with TPN, as it doesn't directly influence hypertension or hypotension in the same way glucose dysregulation does. The focus on glucose stems from its rapid impact on the client's metabolic state, making it the priority assessment to prevent complications like hyperglycemia, which can escalate to severe outcomes if unaddressed. Regular monitoring ensures timely intervention, aligning with TPN's nutritional goals.
Question 2 of 5
The patient comes to the emergency department after an overdose of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse will plan to administer which medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
The client receives alendronate (Fosamax) as treatment for osteoporosis. Which symptoms, caused by an adverse effect of the medication, does the nurse teach should be reported to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 37-year-old man is found to have hypercholesterolemia during a routine checkup. The physician prescribes lovastatin and counsels the patient to make healthy dietary and lifestyle changes to keep his cholesterol under control. Two weeks later, he returns complaining of severe muscle pain, possibly caused by his lovastatin therapy. He insists that he is taking the medication exactly as prescribed, but the physician knows that lovastatin is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 3A4. What else may he be using that would explain his condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lovastatin's myopathy (muscle pain) suggests a CYP3A4 interaction. Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, increasing lovastatin levels, causing toxicity. Barbiturates , Griseofulvin , and Phenytoin induce CYP3A4, reducing levels. St. John's wort (E) also induces. Grapefruit juice fits the timeline and mechanism, explaining the adverse effect.
Question 5 of 5
A 6-year-old boy from Connecticut presents to the emergency department with a bulls-eye-shaped rash on his upper left arm after he went hiking with his family a couple of days ago. He also has had intermittent fevers and muscle aches. The blood test for Lyme disease is positive. He has a history of hearing loss in his left ear from trauma. What side effect would prevent the physician from treating the boy with doxycycline?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease (bulls-eye rash) in a 6-year-old is treated with doxycycline, but tooth discoloration in children under 8-contraindicates it. Tetracyclines bind calcium, staining developing teeth. Anemia , nephrotoxicity , and ototoxicity are rare. Myalgias (E) aren't relevant. Given his age, amoxicillin is preferred to avoid this permanent cosmetic effect, despite doxycycline's efficacy against Borrelia burgdorferi.