ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a hospitalized patientwith a urinary catheter. Which nursing actionbestprevents the patient from acquiring an infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintaining a closed urinary drainage system. This action prevents infection by reducing exposure to external pathogens. Step 1: A closed system minimizes the risk of contamination. Step 2: It prevents entry of bacteria into the urinary tract. Step 3: Regularly emptying the drainage bag helps maintain a closed system. Step 4: This action promotes patient safety and reduces infection risk. Summary: Choice B (strict clean technique) may reduce infection risk during catheter insertion but does not prevent infections post-insertion. Choice C (replacing drainage bag once per shift) increases infection risk due to frequent disconnection. Choice D (fully inflating catheter balloon) is unrelated to infection prevention.
Question 3 of 9
A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epistaxis (nose bleed). Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding. Epistaxis is a common symptom of thrombocytopenia due to the lack of platelets to aid in clot formation. Assessing for epistaxis in patients receiving carmustine is crucial to monitor and manage potential bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with thrombocytopenia.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse wants to find all the pertinent patientinformation in one record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. Which record should the nurse find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Electronic health record. An Electronic Health Record (EHR) contains comprehensive health information about an individual that is collected across different health care providers and organizations. This includes medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results. The EHR is designed to be accessible by authorized healthcare providers and ensures that all pertinent patient information is available in one centralized record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. A: Electronic medical record (EMR) typically contains information from a single provider or organization. C: Electronic charting record is more focused on documenting care provided during a specific encounter. D: Electronic problem record is limited to tracking specific health issues or conditions.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is planning the care of a patient with AIDS who is admitted to the unit withPneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective Airway Clearance. In a patient with AIDS and PCP, maintaining clear airways is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and hypoxia. Pneumocystis pneumonia can cause thick secretions and mucus plugging, leading to difficulty breathing. Ensuring effective airway clearance is a priority to optimize oxygenation and prevent respiratory complications. Impaired oral mucous membranes (B) and imbalanced nutrition (C) are important considerations but not as immediate as airway clearance. Activity intolerance (D) may be a concern for the patient but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.
Question 8 of 9
Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.
Question 9 of 9
A child is undergoing testing for food allergies after experiencing unexplained signs and symptoms of hypersensitivity. What food items would the nurse inform the parents are common allergens?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eggs and wheat. This is because eggs and wheat are common food allergens in children. Eggs contain proteins that can trigger allergic reactions, while wheat contains gluten, a common allergen. Citrus fruits and rice (choice A) are not common allergens. Root vegetables and tomatoes (choice B) are also less likely to cause allergies. Hard cheeses and vegetable oils (choice D) are not commonly associated with food allergies in children. Therefore, informing the parents about eggs and wheat as common allergens is crucial for the child's testing and management of food allergies.