ATI RN
Psychobiologic Disorders Med Surg 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment findings support a diagnosis of ODD?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the assessment findings of being negative, hostile, and spiteful toward parents, and blaming others for misbehavior align with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) criteria. This behavior pattern is a key characteristic of ODD, where individuals often display defiance and hostility towards authority figures. Choice B describes symptoms of Tourette syndrome, not ODD. Choice C describes conduct disorder behaviors, not specific to ODD. Choice D is unrelated to ODD symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
Which one of the following positions is recommended for obtaining consistent blood pressure measurements?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sitting with the arm in a horizontal, supported position at heart level is recommended for consistent blood pressure measurements because it helps reduce errors due to gravitational effects. Placing the arm at heart level minimizes the hydrostatic pressure changes, ensuring accurate readings. This position also allows for proper cuff placement and comfortable arm support, leading to more reliable results. Summary: Choice B (Supine position with arm resting comfortably on the chest) may lead to inaccurate readings due to the arm position not being at heart level. Choice C (Sitting on the couch with arm resting comfortably by the side) lacks the necessary arm support and heart level positioning, leading to potential errors. Choice D (Standing with arm by side and cuff positioned at heart level) may result in fluctuating readings due to the effect of gravity on blood pressure when standing.
Question 3 of 5
Upon taking the popliteal blood pressure of a patient with unilateral distal limb pain, the physical therapist notes that the popliteal pulse is easily palpable (compared to the nonsymptomatic side) and that the blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg (upper limb reading 145/90 mm Hg). Which one of the following pathologies should be ruled out before proceeding with the rest of the physical examination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Popliteal aneurysm. Popliteal aneurysm is a potentially serious condition that can lead to compression of surrounding structures, including the popliteal artery. In this case, the easily palpable popliteal pulse and the lower blood pressure in the affected lower limb suggest a potential obstruction or dilation of the popliteal artery, which could be indicative of a popliteal aneurysm. This condition needs to be ruled out urgently due to the risk of complications such as thrombosis or rupture. Choice A: Deep venous thrombosis is unlikely in this case as there are no signs or symptoms suggestive of venous thrombosis, and the presence of a palpable pulse indicates arterial involvement. Choice B: Restless leg syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs, and it does not present with the physical findings described in the scenario. Choice D: Femoral artery occlusion is
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Orders from the physician include 100 mg chlorpromazine IM STAT and then 50 mg PO bid; 2 mg benztropine PO bid prn. Because benztropine was ordered on a prn basis, which of the following assessments by the nurse would convey a need for this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client develops tremors and a shuffling gait. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors and shuffling gait that can occur as side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Therefore, the presence of these symptoms indicates a need for benztropine to manage the EPS. A: The client's level of agitation increasing does not directly relate to the need for benztropine. B: The client complaining of a sore throat is not a typical indication for benztropine. C: The client's skin having a yellowish cast is not associated with EPS or a need for benztropine in this context. In summary, the development of tremors and a shuffling gait in the client with schizophrenia receiving chlorpromazine is a clear indication of EPS and the need for benztropine as a treatment option
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a client on the psychiatric unit. The client tilts his head to the side, stops talking in midsentence, and listens intently. The nurse recognizes these behaviors as a symptom of the client's illness. The most appropriate nursing intervention for this symptom is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the client to describe what he is hearing. This intervention is appropriate because the client is displaying auditory hallucinations, a common symptom in psychiatric disorders. By asking the client to describe what he is hearing, the nurse can gather important information about the nature and content of the hallucinations, which can guide further assessment and treatment planning. Choice A is incorrect because the client is not displaying physical symptoms that need immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect as benztropine is typically used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, not auditory hallucinations. Choice D is also incorrect as calling the physician for additional orders may not address the immediate need to assess and address the auditory hallucinations.