ATI RN
physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment findings are NOT associated with pyloric stenosis in a 2-month-old infant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the case of pyloric stenosis in a 2-month-old infant, the correct answer is C) A bloated and tense tympanic abdomen. This is because pyloric stenosis typically presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, visible peristalsis, a palpable "olive-shaped" mass in the right upper quadrant, and signs of dehydration. The bloated and tense tympanic abdomen is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis but may be seen in conditions like intestinal obstruction. Option A) Projectile vomiting is associated with pyloric stenosis due to the obstruction at the pyloric sphincter, causing food to be forcefully expelled. Option B) Severe dehydration with sunken eyeballs and depressed fontanelle is also characteristic of pyloric stenosis due to persistent vomiting leading to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Option D) A palpable mass the size and shape of an olive in the right upper quadrant is a classic finding in pyloric stenosis due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. Educationally, understanding the typical clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis is crucial for healthcare providers involved in pediatric care. Recognizing these signs early can lead to prompt diagnosis and intervention, preventing complications associated with delayed treatment. This knowledge is essential for nurses, nurse practitioners, physician assistants, and physicians working in pediatric settings to provide safe and effective care for infants with pyloric stenosis.
Question 2 of 5
During a migraine, the cerebral arteries
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and migraine physiology, understanding the vasomotor changes in cerebral arteries is crucial. During a migraine, the correct answer is B) Dilate. This is because migraines are often associated with vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow and contributing to the headache pain experienced. Option A) Constrict is incorrect because vasoconstriction is not typically observed during a migraine. In fact, vasodilation is the more common phenomenon associated with migraines. Option C) Pulsate is incorrect as pulsation refers to the rhythmic throbbing sensation often felt during a headache but does not reflect the physiological changes in cerebral arteries during a migraine. Option D) Vibrate is incorrect as it does not describe the physiological response of cerebral arteries during a migraine. Vibrations are not a recognized characteristic of migraines. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the vascular changes that occur during migraines, which can influence treatment strategies involving vasodilators or vasoconstrictors. It reinforces the link between pharmacological interventions and the pathophysiology of migraines, aiding in effective management strategies for patients experiencing this condition.
Question 3 of 5
A multiparous pregnant patient presents at 24 weeks gestation with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. This presentation is consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, especially in the later stages of pregnancy. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are disrupted as the cervix begins to dilate and efface in preparation for childbirth. The other options are incorrect for the following reasons: A) Placenta accreta is when the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall but does not present with painless vaginal bleeding. C) Placenta percreta is an even more severe form of placenta accreta, where the placenta invades through the uterine wall, but it does not typically present with painless vaginal bleeding. D) Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which is associated with painful vaginal bleeding and can be life-threatening to both the mother and baby. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for healthcare providers to make accurate assessments and provide appropriate care for pregnant patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of placental abnormalities can help prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
Which medication is indicated for patients with generalized anxiety disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), the medication indicated is Buspirone (Buspar). Buspirone is a serotonin agonist and works by specifically targeting serotonin receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate anxiety symptoms without the risk of dependence or tolerance seen with some other anti-anxiety medications like benzodiazepines. Citalopram (Celexa) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, but it is not the first-line choice for GAD. Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant that may be used in some cases of GAD, but it is not the primary medication of choice due to its side effect profile and potential for toxicity in overdose. Bupropion HCL (Wellbutrin) is primarily indicated for depression and smoking cessation, not for GAD. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate medication for different mental health conditions is crucial for healthcare providers. It is important for students to grasp the pharmacological mechanisms of action of various drugs to make informed decisions in clinical practice and provide optimal care for patients with anxiety disorders.
Question 5 of 5
What is the primary characteristic of Tinea versicolor as it relates to skin conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary characteristic of Tinea versicolor as it relates to skin conditions is that it appears as dark tan patches with a reddish cast and fine scales. This is the correct answer (Option B) because Tinea versicolor is a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur, which leads to the development of these specific patches on the skin. The other options are incorrect for various reasons: Option A is incorrect because raised, red patches with a silvery scale are more indicative of psoriasis, a chronic skin condition characterized by rapid skin cell growth. Option C is incorrect because dry, itchy, and inflamed skin is a common presentation of eczema, which is a different skin condition caused by inflammation. Option D is incorrect because a single, large, scaly patch is more characteristic of conditions like ringworm (tinea corporis) rather than Tinea versicolor. In an educational context, understanding the distinct characteristics of different skin conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. By recognizing the unique features of Tinea versicolor, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and management for patients with this specific fungal infection.