Which assessment finding indicates uterine rupture?

Questions 46

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RN Maternal Newborn Online Practice 2019 A Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which assessment finding indicates uterine rupture?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Uterine rupture is a rare but serious obstetric emergency that can occur during labor and delivery. One of the key assessment findings indicating uterine rupture is when contractions (ctx) abruptly stop during labor. This abrupt cessation of contractions can be a sign that the uterine muscle has torn due to excessive pressure or force, leading to a disruption in the normal progress of labor. Other signs and symptoms of uterine rupture may include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, loss of fetal station, and signs of hypovolemic shock in the mother. Immediate intervention and surgical management are required in cases of uterine rupture to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. In pregnant individuals, trichomoniasis can result in adverse pregnancy outcomes such as preterm birth and low birth weight. A common symptom of trichomoniasis is a frothy, yellow-green, malodorous vaginal discharge. Therefore, in this client scenario, the nurse should expect to find a malodorous discharge as a result of trichomoniasis. The other options presented are not typically associated with trichomoniasis.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statement by the client requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Seeing spots or experiencing visual disturbances can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure. Preeclampsia can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby, so it requires immediate intervention by the nurse. The other statements made by the client are concerning but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the symptoms of preeclampsia.

Question 4 of 9

A laboring patient's obstetrician suggested an amniotomy as a method for inducing the labor. Which assessment must be made before the amniotomy is performed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before performing an amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes), it is essential to assess the fetal presentation, position, and station. This assessment helps ensure that the procedure is performed safely without causing harm to the baby. Knowing the fetal presentation (such as breech, transverse, or vertex), position (occiput anterior, occiput posterior, etc.), and station (how far down the baby's head is in the pelvis) allows the obstetrician to determine the best approach and technique for the amniotomy. It also helps in reducing the risk of complications during labor induction and delivery. Therefore, this assessment is crucial in ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the baby during the labor process.

Question 5 of 9

What is the primary purpose of administering vitamin K to a newborn?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, essential for blood clotting.

Question 6 of 9

The patient asks the nurse when her Nexplanon can be inserted. How does the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would respond with option A, "after the delivery of your placenta." Nexplanon is a hormonal contraceptive implant that is typically inserted in the upper arm subdermally. It is recommended to wait until after the delivery of the placenta to reduce the risk of causing any harm to the fetus during pregnancy or labor. Inserting Nexplanon during labor or delivery is not recommended due to the potential risks involved.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is monitoring a client who is 34 weeks ges- dividing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of the question, the nurse is monitoring a 34-week gestation client. At 34 weeks, the trophoblast or inner cell mass has already developed into the placenta, which is formed earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, choice A is the most relevant option in this scenario. Trophoblast is critical for implantation and the formation of the placenta, which plays a vital role in supporting the developing fetus by providing oxygen and nutrients. Understanding the different stages of fetal development can help the nurse provide optimal care and monitor for any potential issues that may arise during pregnancy.

Question 8 of 9

Be- tions before finding one that works.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Option C is the most appropriate statement to make to the client because it addresses the reality of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Many STIs can be transmitted even when the infected individual is not experiencing any symptoms. This is an important point to communicate to prevent the spread of the infection to other sexual partners. It emphasizes the need for practicing safe sex measures and getting tested regularly, regardless of the presence of symptoms. It is important for the client to understand that they can still be a carrier of the infection even if they are not displaying any noticeable symptoms.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected gestational hypertension. What finding supports this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gestational hypertension is diagnosed with a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or higher without proteinuria.

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