ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment finding indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.
Question 2 of 5
What instructions should the nurse give to a client who will undergo mammography?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This instruction is important because deodorant can interfere with the imaging results by causing artifacts on the mammogram images. Using deodorant can lead to false positives or false negatives, affecting the accuracy of the test results. Choice A is incorrect because using underarm deodorant can negatively impact the mammogram results. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need for the client to fast before a mammogram. Choice D is also incorrect as having a friend drive you home is not a necessary instruction for a mammography appointment.
Question 3 of 5
For which condition might blood be drawn to check uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: gout. Uric acid levels are typically checked for gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. This condition directly relates to uric acid levels in the blood. Asthma (choice A), diverticulitis (choice C), and meningitis (choice D) do not typically require checking uric acid levels. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis is a gastrointestinal condition, and meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
Question 4 of 5
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 5 of 5
Which areas are most important to address for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for healing and energy. Step 2: Elimination is crucial for bowel and bladder function. Step 3: Comfort ensures the client's well-being. Step 4: Safety prevents complications. Step 5: ROM exercises can prevent muscle atrophy. Step 6: Transportation and isotonic exercises are not immediate priorities.