Which assessment finding for a patient who has had surgical reduction of an open fracture of the right radius requires notification of the health care provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a temperature of 101.4°F indicates possible infection post-surgery, requiring immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment. Elevated temperature can indicate systemic infection. A: Serous wound drainage is expected post-surgery and not concerning. B: Right arm pain with movement is typical after surgical reduction and should be managed with pain medication. C: Right arm muscle spasms can be a normal response to surgery and may resolve with proper rest and care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Atopic dermatitis is characterized by oozing due to the disrupted skin barrier. Vesicle formation is more characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis. Round, erythematous papules that enlarge and coalesce are seen in nummular eczema. Raised wheals with associated itching are typical of urticaria. Oozing is specific to atopic dermatitis due to impaired skin barrier function.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because pulling a stroke client up in bed can create friction and shear forces on the skin, leading to pressure ulcer formation. This action puts pressure on vulnerable areas of the skin, especially if the client is immobile or has limited mobility. Turning a client from side to side every 2 hours (B) is actually a preventive measure to reduce pressure ulcer risk by redistributing pressure. Allowing a client to slide up in a chair at mealtime (C) may not directly contribute to pressure ulcers unless prolonged pressure is exerted. Applying powder to buttocks area when diaphoresis has become a problem (D) can help reduce moisture but is not a direct cause of pressure ulcers.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actinic keratosis. Actinic keratosis is considered a premalignant lesion because it is caused by prolonged sun exposure and can progress to squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. It appears as rough, scaly patches on the skin and is commonly seen in elderly individuals with a history of sun damage. Cherry angiomas (A), solar lentigines (C), and telangiectases (D) are not considered premalignant lesions. Cherry angiomas are benign skin growths, solar lentigines are age spots caused by sun exposure, and telangiectases are dilated blood vessels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A sacral injury with exposed bone is 'Stage 4' , per Potter's *Essentials* and NPUAP. Full-thickness loss e.g., bone visible 2 cm deep may include tunneling, unlike 'Stage 1' , nonblanchable redness e.g., intact skin. 'Stage 2' is partial-thickness e.g., shallow ulcer, no bone. 'Stage 3' is full-thickness e.g., fat visible, not bone. A nurse charting e.g., Bone at sacrum' notes Stage 4's severity (e.g., 20% of sacral ulcers), needing debridement. Potter defines Stage 4 as deepest damage, distinct from Stage 3's limit at subcutaneous fat, a physiological integrity key. is the correct, advanced stage.