ATI RN
Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment by the nurse would differentiate a placenta previa from an abruptio placentae?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in placenta previa, pain is usually minimal or absent, while in abruptio placentae, there is severe abdominal pain. Saturated perineal pad (choice A) is common in both conditions. Cervical dilation (choice C) is not specific to differentiate between the two conditions. Fetal heart rate (choice D) may be normal in both conditions.
Question 2 of 5
A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient's magnesium level is 7.6 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's respiratory rate. A magnesium level of 7.6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) and can lead to magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression is a common early sign of magnesium toxicity. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate is the priority to monitor for this potentially life-threatening complication. Stopping the infusion of magnesium (Choice A) is not the immediate priority as the patient's respiratory status needs to be assessed first. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) is important for magnesium toxicity but not as urgent as assessing respiratory rate. Notifying the health care provider (Choice D) can be done after assessing the patient's respiratory rate.
Question 3 of 5
Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnancy often leads to an improvement in rheumatoid arthritis due to the immunosuppressive state that occurs to prevent rejection of the fetus. This reduction in immune activity can alleviate symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, epilepsy, Bell's palsy, and SLE do not typically improve during pregnancy and may even worsen due to hormonal changes and stress on the body. Epilepsy can be challenging to manage during pregnancy, as seizures can potentially harm both the mother and the fetus. Bell's palsy may not improve and could be exacerbated by hormonal changes. SLE is a chronic autoimmune disease that can be unpredictable during pregnancy, with potential flares and complications for both the mother and the fetus.
Question 4 of 5
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Pregnant patients with mitral valve stenosis are at increased risk for developing bacterial endocarditis due to the presence of abnormal valve structures. This condition can lead to serious complications including septic emboli and heart failure. Hypertension (choice A) is not directly related to mitral valve stenosis. Postpartum infection (choice B) is not a primary concern in this scenario. Upper respiratory infections (choice D) are not specifically associated with mitral valve stenosis. In summary, anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated to prevent bacterial endocarditis in pregnant patients with a history of mitral valve stenosis.
Question 5 of 5
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts in newborns. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, leading to various congenital abnormalities. The other choices, B: CMV, C: Syphilis, and D: HIV, can also cause congenital abnormalities but are not specifically associated with bilateral cataracts in newborns. Rubella is the most likely cause in this scenario based on the clinical presentation.