ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which area of the fundus is the central focal point for incoming images?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The fovea. The fovea is the central focal point for incoming images because it contains a high concentration of cones, which are responsible for detailed central vision. Cones are essential for color vision and visual acuity. The macula, while important for central vision, refers to the area surrounding the fovea. The optic disk is where the optic nerve exits the eye, and it does not receive incoming images. The physiologic cup is a normal depression in the optic nerve head and is not involved in image reception. In conclusion, the fovea is the correct answer as it is the area with the highest visual acuity due to the dense concentration of cones.
Question 2 of 9
An 85-year-old man with newly diagnosed nonvalvular atrial fibrillation comes to the office for a follow-up. Which medication change would be most appropriate for reducing his stroke risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.
Question 3 of 9
A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. He notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a set of boxes that were heavier than usual. He also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. He wants to know if he needs to be off of work. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated disc?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Straight-leg raise. This test is used to assess for herniated disc by stretching the sciatic nerve. A positive test is indicated by reproduction of leg pain when the leg is raised between 30 to 70 degrees. This suggests nerve root irritation, common in herniated disc. A: Leg-length test - This test is used to assess for leg length discrepancy, not herniated disc. C: Tinel's test - This test is used to assess for nerve compression, typically in carpal tunnel syndrome, not specifically for herniated disc. D: Phalen's test - This test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, not herniated disc.
Question 4 of 9
A young patient presents with a left-sided mass in her abdomen. You confirm that it is present in the left upper quadrant. Which of the following would support that this represents an enlarged kidney rather than her spleen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A palpable "notch" along its edge. This supports an enlarged kidney over the spleen because the kidney has a concave shape with a notch where the renal vessels enter. This notch is palpable in an enlarged kidney. Choice B is incorrect because the inability to push fingers between the mass and the costal margin is indicative of a spleen, which is a solid organ located close to the ribs. Choice C is incorrect as normal tympany over the area suggests gas-filled structures like the stomach or intestines, not a solid organ like the kidney or spleen. Choice D is incorrect as the ability to push fingers medial and deep to the mass would be more typical of an enlarged spleen, which can displace other organs medially due to its size.
Question 5 of 9
Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in women with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Migraines with aura. Estrogen in contraceptives can increase the risk of stroke in patients with migraines with aura due to its effect on blood clotting. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives should be avoided in these patients to reduce the risk of adverse cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D do not have a direct contraindication to estrogen-progestin contraceptives based on current guidelines.
Question 6 of 9
Which finding below would be unusual in a patient with diabetic retinopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Papilledema. Diabetic retinopathy is a microvascular complication of diabetes that primarily affects the retina's blood vessels. Papilledema, which is optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure, is not a typical finding in diabetic retinopathy. Dot and blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots are commonly seen in diabetic retinopathy due to retinal vessel damage and ischemia. Papilledema is more associated with conditions like intracranial hypertension or optic neuritis.
Question 7 of 9
When evaluating a 17-year-old girl with infrequent menstrual periods, which finding suggests probable hyperandrogenism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hirsutism. Hirsutism is the presence of excessive hair growth in a male pattern distribution in women, which is a common sign of hyperandrogenism. Elevated androgen levels can lead to hirsutism in women, especially in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome. High pitch voice (A) and obesity (D) are not direct indicators of hyperandrogenism. While polycystic ovaries (C) can be associated with hyperandrogenism, the presence of hirsutism is a more specific and direct finding in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.