ATI RN
Psychotropic Medications Medcomm Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which area of the brain is associated anxiety and perception of odors?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amygdala. The amygdala is known to play a crucial role in processing emotions, including fear and anxiety. It is also involved in the perception and processing of odors. The amygdala helps in forming emotional memories and responses to various stimuli. Basal ganglia (B) is primarily involved in motor control, Prefrontal cortex (C) is associated with higher-order cognitive functions, and Wernicke's area (D) is responsible for language comprehension. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it is specifically linked to anxiety and odor perception.
Question 2 of 5
Which best defines a patient who is a poor metabolizer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a poor metabolizer is a patient who processes medications slowly, leading to higher drug levels in the blood. This can increase the risk of toxicity due to the accumulation of the drug. Choice B is a duplicate of A. Choice C is incorrect as poor metabolizers actually have an increased risk of side effects and adverse reactions due to the higher drug levels. Choice D is too extreme and not universally applicable as poor metabolizers may still be prescribed antidepressants with adjusted dosages.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is the best medication class for the PMHNP to prescribe to address elevated norepinephrine levels?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: SNRI. SNRIs (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors) are the best medication class for elevated norepinephrine levels as they inhibit the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, thus increasing their levels in the brain. This helps regulate the neurotransmitter imbalance associated with elevated norepinephrine. A: SSRIs only target serotonin, not norepinephrine. B: MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of norepinephrine but are less commonly used due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects. D: Benzodiazepines are not effective in directly targeting norepinephrine levels.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who recently started on a first generation antipsychotic reports sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Which of the following actions by the PMHNP is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevated prolactin levels are a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotics, leading to sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge. Ordering a blood test to examine prolactin levels is appropriate to monitor for this side effect. Option B is incorrect as sexual dysfunction and nipple discharge are not normal responses to treatment. Option C is irrelevant as OTC supplements are not typically related to these symptoms. Option D is incorrect as discontinuing medication without proper evaluation and management of side effects can worsen the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 5
Mary is a 39-year-old attending a psychiatric outpatient clinic. Mary believes that her husband, sister, and son cause her problems. Listening to Mary describe the problems, the nurse displays therapeutic communication in which response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): A is the correct response because it demonstrates empathy and understanding towards Mary's difficult situation without making assumptions or judgments. It acknowledges Mary's feelings and shows support without imposing personal opinions. Explanation for Incorrect Choices: B: This choice invalidates Mary's feelings by implying she should not dwell on being wronged. It may come across as dismissive and does not validate Mary's emotions. C: This response focuses on the nurse's feelings rather than Mary's, which is not therapeutic communication. It does not address Mary's concerns directly. D: This response assumes Mary's family members are uncaring, which could lead to conflict or defensiveness. It does not reflect active listening or empathy towards Mary's perspective.