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free microbiology test bank questions pdf Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces contain the highest concentration of the virus, while nasopharyngeal swabs and cerebrospinal fluid can also contain the virus. Blood, sputum, and urine do not typically contain high levels of polio virus. Choice A is incorrect as bile content is not a common site for polio virus isolation. Choice C is incorrect because only testing feces may not provide a comprehensive picture of the infection.
Question 2 of 9
Antibiotics are distributed into following groups:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blockaders of protein synthesis because antibiotics in this group target bacterial ribosomes, preventing protein synthesis. This disrupts bacterial growth and replication. Choice B is incorrect as cell wall synthesis inhibitors target a different bacterial component. Choice C is incorrect as antibiotics do not alter bacterial cytoplasm. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotics do fall into different categories based on their mechanism of action.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a biofilm on medical devices?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is known for producing biofilms on medical devices due to its ability to adhere and form a slimy layer that protects it from antibiotics and the host immune system. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections. Clostridium tetani (A) causes tetanus, not known for biofilm production on medical devices. Salmonella enterica (C) causes foodborne illnesses, not typically associated with medical device biofilms. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a common pathogen in healthcare settings but is not specifically known for biofilm production on medical devices.
Question 4 of 9
A 14-year-old patient was diagnosed with Hutchinson's triad: barrel-shaped incisors, parenchymatous keratitis and deafness. The revealed presentations are consistent with the following disease:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis in children. Barrel-shaped incisors, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are key manifestations. Barrel-shaped incisors result from mulberry molars, a type of abnormal tooth. Parenchymatous keratitis is an inflammation of the cornea, a common ocular sign in congenital syphilis. Deafness can occur due to damage to the auditory nerve caused by the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present with the specific triad of symptoms seen in congenital syphilis.
Question 5 of 9
Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases fall under Group I according to the classification of infectious diseases by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Group I includes diseases caused by newly identified or known infectious agents that have increased in incidence or geographic range. Choice B (Group II) includes diseases that have re-emerged due to antimicrobial resistance or lack of previous vaccination. Choice C (Group III) encompasses diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and choice D (Group IV) includes diseases that are caused by re-introduction of eradicated pathogens.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of forming spores that help them survive in extreme conditions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, both A and B. Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are both capable of forming spores, which are a protective mechanism that allows them to survive harsh conditions. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and forms spores in anaerobic environments, while Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax and forms spores in aerobic environments. Therefore, both choices A and B are correct. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fact that both bacteria are capable of forming spores.
Question 7 of 9
Which form of human plague is present with high fever and large lymphadenopathies (buboes). The case fatality in untreated cases may reach 60%.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bubonic plague. Bubonic plague is characterized by high fever and large swollen lymph nodes (buboes). The case fatality rate in untreated cases can reach 60%. This form of plague is typically transmitted through the bite of an infected flea. B: Pneumonic plague presents with respiratory symptoms and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. C: Gastrointestinal plague is not a recognized form of plague. D: Septicemic plague is a severe form of plague where the bacteria multiply in the bloodstream. It may not always present with buboes.
Question 8 of 9
The bacteria responsible for anthrax is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause anthrax, a serious infectious disease in humans and animals. Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium that produces toxins leading to the characteristic symptoms of anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, none of which are related to anthrax. Therefore, based on the specific pathogen responsible for anthrax, Bacillus anthracis is the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who has been taking tetracycline for a long time has developed candidosis of mucous membranes. What drug shoul administered for its treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Itraconazole. Itraconazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat candidosis. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes. This action disrupts the integrity of the fungal cell membrane, leading to cell death. Griseofulvin (B) is primarily used to treat fungal infections of the skin and nails, not mucous membranes. Nitrofungin (C) is not commonly used for candidosis treatment. Amphotericin (D) is a potent antifungal medication but is typically reserved for severe or systemic fungal infections due to its potential side effects.