Questions 9

ATI RN

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Question 1 of 5

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces contain the highest concentration of the virus, while nasopharyngeal swabs and cerebrospinal fluid can also contain the virus. Blood, sputum, and urine do not typically contain high levels of polio virus. Choice A is incorrect as bile content is not a common site for polio virus isolation. Choice C is incorrect because only testing feces may not provide a comprehensive picture of the infection.

Question 2 of 5

The presence of microbes in or on the body is a(n):

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: adhesion. Adhesion refers to the attachment of microbes to surfaces in or on the body without causing harm. Infections (choice A) occur when microbes invade and multiply in the body, leading to harmful effects. Contamination (choice B) refers to the presence of unwanted or potentially harmful substances, not necessarily microbes. Disease (choice D) is a state of poor health caused by a specific agent, such as microbes, resulting in identifiable symptoms. In this context, adhesion best describes the presence of microbes without causing harm or leading to an infection.

Question 3 of 5

The typical site for replication of DNA viruses is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nucleus. DNA viruses replicate in the host cell's nucleus because they require access to the host cell's DNA replication machinery. The nucleus contains the necessary enzymes and factors for DNA replication to occur accurately. The DNA viruses need to utilize these host cell components to replicate their own genetic material. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Cytoplasm - Cytoplasm lacks the necessary enzymes and machinery for accurate DNA replication. C: Endoplasmic Reticulum - ER is involved in protein synthesis and processing, not DNA replication. D: Golgi Apparatus - Golgi apparatus is responsible for processing and packaging proteins, not DNA replication.

Question 4 of 5

A specific sequence of three consecutive nucleotides that is part of the genetic code and that specifies a particular amino acid in a protein or starts or stops protein synthesis is called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Definition - A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that code for a specific amino acid or signal the start/stop of protein synthesis. Step 2: Function - Codons are essential for translating genetic information into proteins. Step 3: Specificity - Codons are specific in their role of encoding amino acids. Step 4: Examples - Examples like AUG for methionine and UAA, UAG, UGA for stop codons illustrate codon functionality. Step 5: Summary - The correct answer is A (Codon) because it accurately describes the function and specificity of a three-nucleotide sequence in genetic coding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the definition and function of a codon.

Question 5 of 5

The term “zone of inhibition†is used in which of the following procedures?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disk-diffusion test. In the disk-diffusion test, the zone of inhibition refers to the area around an antimicrobial disk where bacterial growth is inhibited. This test is used to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to specific antibiotics. The other choices, such as A: Use-dilution test, B: Growth inhibition test, and D: Multiple inhibition test, do not specifically involve measuring the zone of inhibition and are not commonly used methods for testing antibiotic susceptibility.

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