Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces contain the highest concentration of the virus, while nasopharyngeal swabs and cerebrospinal fluid can also contain the virus. Blood, sputum, and urine do not typically contain high levels of polio virus. Choice A is incorrect as bile content is not a common site for polio virus isolation. Choice C is incorrect because only testing feces may not provide a comprehensive picture of the infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces contain the highest concentration of the virus, while nasopharyngeal swabs and cerebrospinal fluid can also contain the virus. Blood, sputum, and urine do not typically contain high levels of polio virus. Choice A is incorrect as bile content is not a common site for polio virus isolation. Choice C is incorrect because only testing feces may not provide a comprehensive picture of the infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The generation time of bacteria refers to the time for a cell to divide and double in number. This is because the generation time is the period required for one bacterial cell to undergo binary fission and divide into two identical daughter cells. This process involves DNA replication, followed by cell division, resulting in an increase in the number of bacterial cells. Incorrect choices: A: The time for DNA replication - While DNA replication is a crucial part of bacterial growth and reproduction, it does not solely define the generation time. C: The time for spore formation - Spore formation is a specific process in certain bacteria and is not synonymous with the generation time. D: The time for toxin production - Toxin production is an independent process in bacteria and does not directly relate to the generation time.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is often caused by consuming improperly canned or preserved foods, particularly meats. The spores of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria can grow in anaerobic conditions, such as those found in improperly canned foods, leading to the production of the botulinum toxin. The symptoms of botulism align with those characteristic of the patient's condition. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Custard pastry from private bakery - Unlikely to be the cause of botulism as this type of food is not typically associated with the growth of Clostridium botulinum. C: Sour cream from local dairy factory - While dairy products can sometimes be sources of foodborne illness, botulism is not commonly associated with sour cream. D: Strawberries from suburban vegetable garden - Botulism is not typically transmitted through fresh fruits or vegetables, making this an unlikely source of infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thayer-Martin agar. This selective media contains antibiotics that inhibit the growth of other organisms while allowing Neisseria gonorrhoeae to grow. The antibiotics in Thayer-Martin agar include vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim, which target different types of bacteria, ensuring the isolation of N. gonorrhoeae. Phenylethyl alcohol agar (A) is used to isolate gram-positive organisms, not N. gonorrhoeae. MacConkey agar (C) is selective for gram-negative enteric bacteria. Mannitol salt agar (D) is used for isolating Staphylococcus species based on their ability to ferment mannitol.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, where they translate the genetic information from mRNA into specific amino acid sequences to form proteins. This process occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Ribosomes do not participate in the breakdown of substances, which is mainly carried out by lysosomes or proteasomes. Oxidative phosphorylation involves the generation of ATP in mitochondria, not ribosomes. Ribosomes do not inactivate antibiotics; this is typically done by enzymes or chemical modifications. Therefore, the correct answer is A as ribosomes play a crucial role in protein synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Unicellular organisms with two layers in cytoplasm = Entamoeba gingivalis. 2. Wide pseudopodia = characteristic of Entamoeba genus. 3. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery, not dental plaque. 4. Trichomonas tenax causes periodontal disease, not dental plaque. 5. Lamblia intestinalis causes giardiasis, not related to dental plaque.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disk-diffusion test. In the disk-diffusion test, the zone of inhibition refers to the area around an antimicrobial disk where bacterial growth is inhibited. This test is used to determine the susceptibility of bacteria to specific antibiotics. The other choices, such as A: Use-dilution test, B: Growth inhibition test, and D: Multiple inhibition test, do not specifically involve measuring the zone of inhibition and are not commonly used methods for testing antibiotic susceptibility.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bubonic plague. Bubonic plague is characterized by high fever and large swollen lymph nodes (buboes). The case fatality rate in untreated cases can reach 60%. This form of plague is typically transmitted through the bite of an infected flea. B: Pneumonic plague presents with respiratory symptoms and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. C: Gastrointestinal plague is not a recognized form of plague. D: Septicemic plague is a severe form of plague where the bacteria multiply in the bloodstream. It may not always present with buboes.