Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

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Question 1 of 9

Which are the most suitable materials for isolation of polio viruses

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.

Question 2 of 9

A child entering the school for the first time was given Mantoux test in order to determine if there was a need for revaccination. The reaction was negative. What is the meaning of this test result?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Availability of cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis. A negative Mantoux test indicates the presence of an immune response to the TB bacteria, as the test measures the body's delayed hypersensitivity reaction to TB antigens. This means the child has been exposed to TB in the past or has been vaccinated, resulting in the development of cell-mediated immunity against TB. Incorrect choices: A: No cell-mediated immunity to tuberculosis - This is incorrect as a negative Mantoux test actually indicates the presence of cell-mediated immunity. C: No antibodies to the tuberculosis bacteria - Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity, not antibody response. D: No anti-toxic immunity to tuberculosis - Mantoux test does not assess anti-toxic immunity, it specifically measures cell-mediated immunity.

Question 3 of 9

Family Retroviriade:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Family Retroviridae is known for having a single-stranded RNA genome. 2. The (-) sign indicates that the RNA strand is negative-sense. 3. Therefore, the correct answer A, "Their capsid consists of two copies of ssRNA(-)," is accurate. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because Retroviridae have simple type of symmetry. - Choice C is incorrect as Retroviridae are not enveloped viruses. - Choice D is incorrect because Retroviridae are enveloped viruses.

Question 4 of 9

A patient ill with amebiasis was prescribed a certain drug. The use of alcohol together with this drug is contraindicated because the drug inhibits metabolism of ethyl alcohol. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following viruses can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BK virus. BK virus is a common cause of hemorrhagic cystitis, especially in immunocompromised individuals. It infects the urinary tract, leading to inflammation and bleeding in the bladder. Enteroviruses, Flaviviruses, and Coronaviruses do not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis. Enteroviruses usually cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections, Flaviviruses are commonly associated with diseases like dengue fever and Zika virus, and Coronaviruses are known for causing respiratory illnesses such as COVID-19. Hence, the correct answer is A as it is the only virus among the options known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis.

Question 6 of 9

Clinical symptom, typical for erythema infectiosum is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exanthematous rash. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is characterized by a distinctive rash on the cheeks that looks like a "slapped cheek." This rash then spreads to the rest of the body, resulting in a lace-like rash (exanthem). Swelling of salivary glands (choice A) is not a typical symptom of erythema infectiosum. Diarrhea (choice B) and hepatitis (choice C) are also not associated with this condition. Therefore, the most characteristic clinical symptom of erythema infectiosum is the exanthematous rash.

Question 7 of 9

Planned mass vaccination of all newborn 5-7 day old children against tuberulosis plays an important role in tuberculosis prevention. In this case the following vaccine is applied:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin). BCG is the vaccine used for tuberculosis prevention, not only for newborns but also for older children and adults. BCG helps in protecting against severe forms of tuberculosis in infants. Diphteria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis vaccine (choice B) is for protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Diphtheria and tetanus anatoxin vaccine (choice C) provides protection against diphtheria and tetanus, not tuberculosis. Adsorbed diphtheria vaccine (choice D) is specifically for diphtheria, not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it is the only vaccine related to tuberculosis prevention.

Question 8 of 9

A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urogenital trichomoniasis. The presence of pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front, and an undulating membrane in a vaginal smear indicates Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis. Trichomonas vaginalis is sexually transmitted and causes vaginal discharge, itching, and inflammation. Lambliasis (choice B) is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is not characterized by the described features. Intestinal trichomoniasis (choice C) is caused by a different species, Tritrichomonas foetus, and presents with diarrhea in cattle. Toxoplasmosis (choice D) is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and typically affects the brain and other organs, not the genital tract.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in low-oxygen environments?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments by switching between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism. They have the flexibility to use oxygen if present but can also ferment in the absence of oxygen. Obligate anaerobes (A) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, obligate aerobes (C) require oxygen for survival, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen for growth, unlike facultative anaerobes.

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