Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)

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Advanced Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which are routes of drug excretion? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Drug excretion via the GI tract occurs when drugs are not absorbed and are eliminated through feces. 2. The respiratory tract does not play a significant role in drug excretion. 3. The lymphatic system primarily transports immune cells and fats, not drugs. 4. The circulatory system transports drugs to tissues but not for direct excretion.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following drugs was most likely given?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flucytosine. Flucytosine is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections like cryptococcal meningitis. The other options, Fluorouracil and Cytarabine, are chemotherapy drugs used for cancer treatment. Griseofulvin is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections. Flucytosine is the most likely drug given in this scenario due to its specific indication for fungal infections, which aligns with the patient's symptoms.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following enzymes most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of terbinafine in the patient's disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Squalene epoxidase. Terbinafine is an antifungal drug that inhibits squalene epoxidase, a key enzyme in the ergosterol biosynthesis pathway in fungi. Inhibition of squalene epoxidase disrupts fungal cell membrane synthesis, leading to cell death. Thymidylate synthase (A) is involved in DNA synthesis, not the target of terbinafine. Lanosterol synthetase (B) is not a direct target of terbinafine. Transpeptidase (D) is an enzyme targeted by antibiotics like penicillin, not terbinafine. In summary, squalene epoxidase is the correct choice as it is the specific target of terbinafine in fungal cells, distinguishing it from the other options.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following medications is used to treat depression by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Duloxetine is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). Step 2: SNRIs work by blocking the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. Step 3: By inhibiting the reuptake of these neurotransmitters, duloxetine helps increase their levels in the brain, which can improve mood and alleviate depression. Step 4: Therefore, duloxetine is the correct choice for a medication that treats depression by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine. Summary: A: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), not affecting norepinephrine. C: Sertraline is also an SSRI, not targeting norepinephrine reuptake. D: Venlafaxine is an SNRI like duloxetine, but it specifically targets serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake, making

Question 5 of 5

A 60-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed hydrocodone. Hydrocodone works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic that belongs to the group of opioids. 2. Opioids like hydrocodone bind to opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other parts of the body. 3. By binding to these receptors, hydrocodone modulates pain perception and response. 4. This mechanism of action results in the alleviation of pain in individuals. 5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it accurately describes how hydrocodone works. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants, not opioids like hydrocodone. - Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the mechanism of action of NSAIDs, not opioids. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of local anesthetics, not opioids.

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