Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction?:

Questions 51

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Assessment of Genitourinary System Questions

Question 1 of 4

Which antileprosy drug that both suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction?:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clofazimine. Clofazimine is an antileprosy drug that is known to suppress both lepra reactions and reversal reactions. It has anti-inflammatory properties that help control and prevent leprosy reactions. Dapsone (A) is primarily used for leprosy treatment but does not specifically target lepra and reversal reactions. Rifampin (B) is effective against the leprosy bacteria but is not known for its role in managing lepra reactions. Minocycline (D) is another antibiotic used in leprosy treatment but does not have the same anti-inflammatory properties as clofazimine. Therefore, clofazimine is the correct choice for managing both lepra and reversal reactions in leprosy patients.

Question 2 of 4

A patient is taking sildenafil is diagnosed to have effort angina. Which of the following antianginal drug should be avoided?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nitroglycerin should be avoided in a patient taking sildenafil because both drugs can cause a significant drop in blood pressure leading to severe hypotension, syncope, or even cardiovascular collapse. Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator, and when combined with sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor), the additive vasodilatory effects can result in dangerous hypotension. A: Amlodipine and B: Diltiazem are calcium channel blockers that are commonly used in combination with sildenafil for the treatment of hypertension and angina. They work through different mechanisms and do not have a significant interaction with sildenafil. D: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can be safely used with sildenafil. It helps in reducing heart rate and blood pressure, and its combination with sildenafil can have a beneficial effect in patients with angina.

Question 3 of 4

Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na+K+/2Cl- transporter in the renal tubular cell specifically in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to decreased reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and chloride ions, resulting in increased excretion of water and electrolytes. The other choices, Na+K+ ATPase (A), Na+/Cl- transporter (B), and Na+H+ antiporter (D), are not the primary target of furosemide in the kidney and do not lead to the same diuretic effect.

Question 4 of 4

Which of the following diuretics needs close monitoring with use of potassium sparing diuretics such as spironolactone?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hydrochlorothiazide. When combined with potassium sparing diuretics like spironolactone, hydrochlorothiazide can lead to hyperkalemia due to the additive effects on potassium levels. This combination requires close monitoring to prevent dangerous elevations in potassium levels. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic and does not typically interact with spironolactone in the same way. Captopril (B) is an ACE inhibitor, not a diuretic, and does not directly affect potassium levels. Verapamil (C) is a calcium channel blocker and does not interact with spironolactone in terms of potassium levels.

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