ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations?:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Erythromycin is primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis in bacteria. At higher concentrations, it can disrupt bacterial cell membranes, making it bactericidal. Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis, Chloramphenicol blocks peptide bond formation, and Ampicillin disrupts bacterial cell wall synthesis. Therefore, A is correct because of its dual mechanism of action.
Question 2 of 5
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist. 2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females. 3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects. 4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects. 5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances. Summary: Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
Question 5 of 5
How is an intravenous pyelogram performed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is performed by injecting a contrast dye into the vein. This dye travels through the bloodstream, highlighting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on X-ray images. Palpating the suprapubic area (A) involves feeling for the bladder, but it is not part of an IVP procedure. Percussing the area over the bladder (B) involves tapping to assess for fluid or air, which is not relevant to an IVP. Using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds (D) is not related to the process of an IVP.