ATI RN
Maternal Monitoring Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of maternal monitoring for chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus, the best predictor among the options provided is B) Multiple-marker screening. This screening test involves analyzing maternal serum for various markers such as alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin-A. These markers can indicate an increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. Multiple-marker screening is preferred over the other options for several reasons. Biophysical profile (option A) is a test used to assess fetal well-being and not specifically designed to predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio (option C) is primarily used to assess fetal lung maturity and not for chromosomal abnormalities. Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum (option D) are important for assessing blood compatibility but do not directly predict chromosomal abnormalities. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing multiple-marker screening can help students grasp the importance of specific tests in prenatal care. It highlights the significance of using a combination of markers to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities, emphasizing the need for a comprehensive approach in maternal monitoring. This knowledge is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in prenatal care to make informed decisions and provide appropriate support and counseling to expectant parents.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of maternal monitoring and chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in pregnancy, the correct answer is C) RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative pregnant women to prevent the development of Rh incompatibility, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. CVS involves obtaining a sample of the placental tissue for genetic testing, which can pose a risk of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. If the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive, there is a risk of sensitization to Rh antigens, which could affect future pregnancies. Administering RhoGAM helps prevent the mother's immune system from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, thus protecting future pregnancies from hemolytic disease. A) Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia and eclampsia, not routinely administered in the context of CVS. B) Prostaglandin suppository is not indicated for CVS and is more commonly used for cervical ripening or induction of labor. D) Betamethasone is a steroid given to pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery to enhance fetal lung maturation, not typically given in the context of CVS for genetic testing. Understanding the rationale behind the administration of RhoGAM in the context of CVS is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers involved in maternal monitoring to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the fetus.
Question 3 of 5
An antenatal client is informing the nurse of her prenatal signs and symptoms. Which of the following findings would the nurse determine are presumptive signs of pregnancy? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the signs and symptoms of pregnancy is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers involved in maternal monitoring. In this scenario, the correct answer is option A) Amenorrhea, which is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods and is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy. It occurs due to the hormonal changes that maintain the uterine lining to support the developing fetus. This sign is considered presumptive because it can also be caused by factors other than pregnancy. Option B) Breast tenderness is a possible sign of pregnancy, but it is not specific to pregnancy as it can also occur due to hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle. Option C) Quickening, which refers to the sensation of fetal movements, is a probable sign of pregnancy and typically occurs later in pregnancy, usually around the second trimester. Option D) Frequent urination is a common symptom in pregnancy due to the increased pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus. It is considered a possible sign but not a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Educationally, it is important for healthcare professionals to differentiate between presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy to accurately assess and monitor pregnant clients. Understanding these signs helps in providing appropriate care, support, and education to expectant mothers throughout their pregnancy journey.
Question 4 of 5
A client asks the nurse what was meant when the physician told her she had a positive Chadwick’s sign. Which of the following information about the finding would be appropriate for the nurse to convey at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) It is a bluish coloration of your cervix and vagina. Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia resulting from increased vascularity due to hormonal changes in pregnancy. This physiological change occurs around the 6th week of pregnancy and is an indicator of increased blood flow in the pelvic area, preparing the body for childbirth. Option A is incorrect because a purplish stretch mark on the abdomen is not related to Chadwick's sign. Option B is incorrect as heart palpitations are not associated with Chadwick's sign. Option D is also incorrect as abnormal sounds on breathing are not indicative of Chadwick's sign. Educational Context: Understanding physical signs like Chadwick's sign is crucial for healthcare providers involved in maternal monitoring during pregnancy. It helps in assessing the progress of pregnancy and monitoring the health of both the mother and the fetus. Educating clients about these signs enhances their understanding of the changes happening in their bodies and promotes active participation in their prenatal care.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse notes each of the following findings in a 10-week gestation client. Which of the findings would enable the nurse to tell the client that she is positively pregnant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In early pregnancy, the presence of a fetal heart rate via Doppler is the most definitive sign that a woman is positively pregnant. This is because the detection of a fetal heartbeat directly confirms the presence of a developing embryo or fetus within the uterus. Option A is correct because it provides direct evidence of the presence of the fetus, making it the most reliable indicator of pregnancy among the options given. Option B, a positive pregnancy test, detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone in the woman's urine or blood, which indicates pregnancy but does not definitively confirm the presence of a developing fetus. Options C and D, Chadwick's sign and Montgomery gland enlargements, respectively, are physical changes that occur in early pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes, but they are not as definitive as detecting a fetal heartbeat. Educationally, understanding the various signs and symptoms of pregnancy is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses, involved in maternal monitoring. This knowledge helps them accurately assess and provide care for pregnant clients, ensuring optimal outcomes for both the mother and the developing fetus.