ATI RN
NCLEX Questions on Skin Integrity and Wound Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which agent can be used to destroy pathogens other than spores?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disinfectant. Disinfectants are agents used to destroy pathogens on surfaces or objects, but they are not effective against spores. Antiseptics are used on living tissues, sterilizing agents eliminate all microorganisms including spores, and isolating agents do not destroy pathogens. Disinfectants are the best choice for destroying pathogens other than spores due to their effectiveness on surfaces.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus. Which should the nurse include when teaching this client? Select the one that does not apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is OK to share makeup once the infection has resolved. Sharing makeup can reintroduce bacteria to the eyes, leading to a reinfection. 1. Sharing makeup increases the risk of spreading the infection. 2. Staphylococcus is highly contagious and can easily be transmitted through shared makeup. 3. Proper hygiene practices, like not sharing makeup, are crucial in preventing the spread of conjunctivitis. 4. The other choices are correct: B emphasizes not sharing items to prevent spread, C suggests a helpful home treatment, and D promotes hand hygiene to prevent infection transmission.
Question 3 of 5
Because of the way the influenza virus is transmitted from person to person, nurses who are working with clients with influenza should implement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: droplet precautions. Influenza virus is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and eye protection to prevent the spread of droplets. Isolation precautions (B) are used for infections spread by contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions (C) are for infections transmitted through small particles that remain suspended in the air. Contact precautions (D) are for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions are the most appropriate for influenza due to its mode of transmission through respiratory droplets.
Question 4 of 5
A client has completed the full course of antibiotics prescribed to treat otitis media. Which primary manifestation of the disorder will be relieved as evidence that treatment has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain. Effective treatment of otitis media should result in the relief of pain, which is a primary manifestation of the disorder. Antibiotics target the infection causing the inflammation and pain in the ear. Impaired hearing (A) may persist even after the infection is treated, as inflammation can take time to resolve. Dizziness (B) may be a symptom of inner ear involvement but is not the primary manifestation of otitis media. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typically associated with otitis media and would not be relieved by completing the course of antibiotics.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client recovering from pneumonia. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because the pneumococcal vaccine is not given every fall; it's typically recommended once or in some cases, a booster after a certain period. A is incorrect as alternative vaccines are available for those allergic to eggs. B is a good practice as the influenza vaccine should be received annually. D is incorrect because the pneumococcal vaccine primarily protects against pneumococcal disease, not all bacterial pneumonia.