Which action will the nurse take when caring for a patient with osteomalacia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach about the use of vitamin D supplements. Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by a deficiency of vitamin D, leading to weak and soft bones. Vitamin D supplements help in improving calcium absorption and bone mineralization. By educating the patient about the importance of vitamin D supplements, the nurse addresses the root cause of osteomalacia. Choice B is incorrect because while weight-bearing exercise is beneficial for bone health, it does not directly address the vitamin D deficiency seen in osteomalacia. Choice C is incorrect as bisphosphonates are typically used in conditions like osteoporosis, not osteomalacia. Choice D is incorrect as sunscreen use, although important for skin health, does not address the underlying vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because sun radiation can cause damage to the DNA in epidermal cells, leading to mutations and skin cancer. Additionally, sun exposure can generate free radicals, which can further damage skin cells. Autoimmune response (A) is not related to the sun's damaging effects. Compensatory increases in melanin production (B) is a protective response to sun exposure, not a direct cause of damage. Hyperkeratinization and lesion formation (D) are not specific processes related to sun radiation damage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because malignant melanoma is indeed a very rapid growing and aggressive cancer. This information is crucial for the client to understand the seriousness of the diagnosis and the need for prompt and aggressive treatment. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize - This statement is incorrect because malignant melanoma is known to have a high potential for metastasis. C: This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area - This statement is incorrect because melanoma can occur on any part of the body, not just limited to the head and neck. D: Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B) - While this choice provides some accurate information about the staging of the cancer, it does not fully address the client's question about the nature of malignant melanoma.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Skin tear risk spikes with age and fragility, making 'a 72-year-old female taking a steroid for rheumatoid arthritis' most vulnerable. Steroids thin skin e.g., 20% dermal loss in 6 months per Baranoski and Ayello (2004), and her age adds rete ridge flattening e.g., 70% tear rate. , '22-year-old post-hernia,' has resilient skin e.g., 1 mm thick, tears <5% despite surgery. , '37-year-old with fracture,' risks bruising e.g., not tears skin still elastic. , '64-year-old post-cataract,' is older e.g., 30% risk but mobile, no steroids. The 72-year-old's immobility e.g., RA stiffness plus prednisone (e.g., 10 mg daily) doubles tear odds, a nurse's red flag for padding. Unlike younger, thicker skin or less medicated elders, her profile per *Wound Care Essentials* peaks risk, making the correct, highest-risk patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: For a dirty puncture wound, '10 years' since last tetanus toxoid triggers a booster, per Potter's *Essentials*. CDC guidelines mandate e.g., after 10 years, immunity wanes (e.g., 50% antibody drop) unlike '1 year' , too soon e.g., still protective. '3 years' and '5 years' apply to cleaner wounds e.g., not this risk. A nurse asks e.g., Last shot 2012?' if over 10 (e.g., 2025 now), injects, reducing tetanus odds (e.g., 1/1000 to near zero). Potter stresses this for dirty trauma, a health promotion must. is the correct, evidence-based cutoff.