ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which action is most important for the nurse to teach a patient who is taking tositumomab?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tositumomab is a radioactive monoclonal antibody used in cancer treatment. Patients should be advised to use a separate bathroom and sit while urinating to minimize radiation exposure to others and themselves. This precaution is necessary because the drug is excreted in urine, which remains radioactive for a period after treatment. Avoiding alcohol or smoking is not specifically related to tositumomab therapy. Taking the drug on an empty stomach is not applicable, as it is administered intravenously.
Question 2 of 9
For a drug that obeys first-order (linear) kinetics and fits a one-compartment model for elimination:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For first-order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration, ensuring constant percentage clearance over time.
Question 3 of 9
the antidote for Warfarin is?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the body's ability to use vitamin K to form clotting factors. In cases of excessive anticoagulation or bleeding due to Warfarin, the antidote is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps the body produce clotting factors, thereby reversing the effects of Warfarin and promoting the blood to clot normally. Other medications like Narcan, Glucagon, and Vitamin B do not have a direct antidote effect for Warfarin toxicity.
Question 4 of 9
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine's anticholinergic effects include urinary hesitancy , a serious symptom risking retention, needing physician reporting. Sedation is expected. Diarrhea and vomiting aren't typical. D prioritizes significant complications, making it the key symptom.
Question 5 of 9
Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed to a client with alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the treatment regimen?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The statement "I'll have my physician lower my dosage once I start to feel okay" indicates an understanding of the treatment regimen because Diazepam is typically used as a short-term treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Once the client starts to feel okay, it is important to gradually taper off the medication under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent withdrawal symptoms. This demonstrates the client's understanding of the appropriate course of treatment and the need for medical supervision throughout the process.
Question 6 of 9
The patient is receiving lithium (Eskalith) and asks the nurse why he has to have blood drawn so often. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium's narrow therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) requires frequent blood draws to ensure levels stay safe and effective, preventing toxicity (e.g., tremors) or subtherapeutic dosing. Side effects are monitored clinically, not just by blood. Effectiveness and response tie to levels, but ‘correct amount' is precise, addressing the patient's query directly about monitoring's purpose.
Question 7 of 9
It is rational and advised therapeutic practice to commence treatment with the following drug using a loading dose if a rapid onset of action is required:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A loading dose achieves therapeutic levels quickly for drugs with long half-lives or urgent needs. Clozapine's slow titration avoids agranulocytosis, not rapid loading. Zolmitriptan, for acute migraine, acts fast without loading due to short half-life. Amiodarone, with a half-life of weeks, uses loading doses (e.g., 800-1600 mg/day) to rapidly control arrhythmias, rational for urgent onset. Levodopa's short half-life and titration in Parkinson's don't require loading. Doxazosin, for hypertension, starts low to avoid first-dose hypotension. Amiodarone's pharmacokinetics and arrhythmia urgency make loading advised, balancing efficacy and toxicity risks.
Question 8 of 9
A patient will be taking niacin as part of antilipemic therapy. What is the best way to avoid problems with flushing or pruritus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking niacin with a full glass of water on an empty stomach can help reduce the risk of flushing or pruritus, which are common side effects of niacin. Additionally, starting with a low initial dose and increasing gradually as tolerated can also help minimize these side effects. Niacin can cause vasodilation, leading to flushing and itching, so taking it with water and on an empty stomach can help alleviate these symptoms.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is receiving heparin therapy as part of the treatment for a pulmonary embolism. The nurse monitors the results of which laboratory test to check the drug™s effectiveness?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse monitors the aPTT to check the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing and treating blood clots. Heparin acts by inhibiting the clotting cascade, specifically by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which inactivates clotting factors such as thrombin and factor Xa. The aPTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, which is affected by heparin therapy. By monitoring the patient's aPTT levels, the nurse can ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin therapy to be effective in preventing further clot formation. Monitoring bleeding times, PT/INR, or vitamin K levels is not typically done to assess heparin therapy effectiveness.