ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which action is most important for a nurse caring for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the client. This is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. Moving a client with a suspected spinal cord injury can worsen the injury and lead to permanent damage. Immobilizing the client helps maintain spinal alignment and reduces the risk of paralysis. Providing pain relief (B) and loosening clothing (D) are important but secondary actions. Applying pressure to the chest (C) is not recommended for a suspected spinal cord injury as it can also exacerbate the injury.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 70-year-old patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthostatic hypotension. In a patient with congestive heart failure, there is impaired cardiac function leading to decreased cardiac output. This can result in orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops upon standing. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important to prevent falls and other complications. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. C: Hypoglycemia may occur in patients with diabetes, but it is not a common complication of congestive heart failure. D: Severe dehydration is not directly related to congestive heart failure unless the patient has concurrent issues such as diarrhea or excessive diuresis.
Question 3 of 9
Which value should a nurse monitor closely when a client is on TPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucose. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a form of nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream, providing all essential nutrients including glucose. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium (A), Magnesium (B), and Cholesterol (D) are not typically monitored closely when a client is on TPN, as they are not directly impacted by TPN administration. Calcium and Magnesium levels are usually monitored for other conditions, and Cholesterol levels are not typically affected by TPN administration.
Question 4 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic hypothesis. Nurses use diagnostic reasoning to formulate diagnostic hypotheses based on patient data and clinical judgment. They analyze symptoms and data to generate potential diagnoses. Choice A, nursing diagnosis, involves identifying patient problems related to nursing care. Choice B, medical diagnosis, is made by physicians to identify diseases or medical conditions. Choice D, diagnostic assessment, refers to the process of collecting and analyzing data to make a diagnosis. Diagnostic hypothesis aligns with the process of diagnostic reasoning in nursing practice.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. A symptom is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the patient. Chest pain is a subjective sensation that a patient reports, making it a symptom. Clammy skin, serum potassium level, and temperature are all objective signs or measurements, not subjective experiences reported by the patient. Symptoms are what the patient feels or experiences, while signs are objective findings that can be measured or observed by healthcare providers.
Question 8 of 9
The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data together form the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: database. The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data collectively form the database in healthcare. This term refers to a comprehensive collection of all pertinent information about a patient that is used for analysis, diagnosis, and treatment planning. The other choices are incorrect because B: admitting data specifically refers to information gathered at the time of admission, C: financial statement pertains to financial information, and D: discharge summary summarizes the patient's care and treatment at the time of discharge, not the entire patient record.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about self-management. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.