ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which action indicates the nurse is using a PICOT question to improve care for a patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.
Question 2 of 9
The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.
Question 3 of 9
A new nurse writes the following nursing diagnoses on a patient’s care plan. Which nursing diagnosis will cause the nurse manager to intervene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. The nurse manager would intervene because hemorrhage is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Wandering (A), urinary retention (C), and impaired swallowing (D) are important assessments but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as hemorrhage. The nurse manager would prioritize addressing the hemorrhage to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff is the diagnostic sign for pericarditis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following groups of terms best describes a nurse-initiated intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse-initiated interventions involve autonomous actions based on clinical judgment to achieve client outcomes. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care independently. Choice A involves physician orders, not nurse-initiated actions. Choice C relates to medical treatment, not nursing interventions. Choice D focuses on collaboration with other providers, not solely nurse-initiated actions. In summary, only choice B aligns with the independent and outcome-focused nature of nurse-initiated interventions.
Question 6 of 9
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.
Question 7 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse should include in the patient’s teaching plan that if the patient does not take the vitamin B12, which one of the following will develop?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells, and its deficiency can lead to pernicious anemia, characterized by decreased red blood cell production. Without adequate vitamin B12, the body cannot properly utilize iron, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is a result of insufficient iron levels, not vitamin B12 deficiency. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin, not related to vitamin B12 deficiency. Acquired haemolytic anemia (choice D) is caused by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not by vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 9 of 9
A client takes prednisone (Deltasone), as prescribed, for rheumatoid arthritis. During follow-up visits, the nurse should assess the client for common adverse reactions to this drug, such as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid retention and weight gain. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause fluid retention and weight gain as common adverse reactions. Here's the rationale: Prednisone is known to increase sodium and water retention in the body, leading to fluid retention and subsequent weight gain. This occurs due to the drug's impact on the body's electrolyte balance. Tetany and tremors (Choice A) are not common adverse reactions associated with prednisone use. Anorexia and weight loss (Choice C) are also not typical reactions, as prednisone is more likely to cause weight gain. Choice D, "None of the above," is incorrect as prednisone commonly causes fluid retention and weight gain as adverse reactions.