ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which action indicates the nurse is using a PICOT question to improve care for a patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse has been examining the vital signs of the client for the past 2 days. On a particular day, she observe a sudden change in the vital signs of the client. Which of the ff steps should the nurse take immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inform the physician. This is essential because a sudden change in vital signs may indicate a critical condition that requires immediate medical attention. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and provide appropriate interventions. Summary: - B: Changing environmental settings is not a priority when dealing with sudden changes in vital signs. - C: Altering diet intake is not an immediate response to sudden changes in vital signs. - D: Decreasing physical activity may not address the underlying cause of the sudden change in vital signs.
Question 3 of 9
A female client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) receives family-planning counseling. Which statement about safer sex practices for persons with HIV is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.
Question 4 of 9
To prevent infection in a patient with a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system in place, the nurse should;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is crucial for preventing infection when accessing or caring for an invasive monitoring system like a subdural intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field, washing hands, using sterile gloves, and using sterile supplies to minimize the risk of contamination. This is essential to prevent introducing harmful microorganisms into the patient's system. Using clean technique (B) or sterile technique only when cleansing the insertion site (C) may not provide adequate protection against infection. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (D) is not an appropriate method for preventing infection and can lead to complications.
Question 5 of 9
A narcotic analgesic is ordered for postoperative pain. Why are narcotics given in low doses to the laryngectomy patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because narcotics in high doses can depress the respiratory rate and cough reflex, which can be especially dangerous for a laryngectomy patient due to the risk of airway compromise. Low doses can provide pain relief without significant respiratory depression. Choices B and C are incorrect because narcotics typically do not increase respiratory tract secretions or cause stomal edema. Choice D is incorrect because while narcotics can potentially cause addiction, this is not the primary reason for giving low doses to laryngectomy patients.
Question 6 of 9
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse notes vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest-drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to correct the bubbling?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. First, the nurse should assess the chest-drainage system and tubing for any air leaks. Air leaks can cause bubbling in the water-seal chamber, indicating a potential issue with the system's integrity. By examining the entire system, the nurse can identify and correct any leaks to ensure proper functioning of the chest-drainage system. Lowering the level of suction (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of air leaks. Doing nothing (choice C) is not appropriate as vigorous bubbling indicates a problem. Asking the patient to cough forcefully (choice D) is unrelated to addressing bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following groups of terms best describes a nurse-initiated intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse-initiated interventions involve autonomous actions based on clinical judgment to achieve client outcomes. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care independently. Choice A involves physician orders, not nurse-initiated actions. Choice C relates to medical treatment, not nursing interventions. Choice D focuses on collaboration with other providers, not solely nurse-initiated actions. In summary, only choice B aligns with the independent and outcome-focused nature of nurse-initiated interventions.
Question 9 of 9
Which initial intervention is most appropriate for a patient who has a new onset of chest pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, notifying the health care provider. This is the most appropriate initial intervention because chest pain can be a symptom of a serious medical condition like a heart attack. The health care provider needs to be informed immediately to assess the situation and provide appropriate treatment. Reassessing the patient (A) may delay crucial medical intervention. Administering pain medication (C) without knowing the cause of chest pain can be dangerous. Calling radiology for a chest x-ray (D) is not the initial step in managing new onset chest pain.