ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which action indicates the nurse is meeting aprimary goal of cultural competent care for patients?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing individualized care is a fundamental aspect of cultural competence. This means tailoring care to meet the unique cultural, social, and personal needs of each patient. It involves understanding and respecting a patient's beliefs, values, and practices. Explanation: A. Providing care to transgender patients is important, but it is not the primary goal of cultural competence. B. Restoring relationships is beneficial but may not directly address cultural competence. D. Providing care to surgical patients is a common nursing duty but does not specifically relate to cultural competence.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse needs to know how to find, evaluate, and use information effectively.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clinical decision support system. A clinical decision support system is a type of system or design that helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in making clinical decisions by providing them with relevant information and knowledge. This system assists in analyzing data to generate patient-specific recommendations or alerts to improve patient care. In the given scenario, the nurse's need to find, evaluate, and use information effectively aligns with the purpose of a clinical decision support system. This system enables the nurse to access evidence-based information, guidelines, and recommendations to enhance their decision-making process and improve patient outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. While computer skills are important, informatics involves a deeper understanding of using information effectively in practice. B: This choice provides a detailed explanation of informatics but does not directly address the type of system or design the nurse would be using to find, evaluate, and use information effectively. D: Nursing process
Question 3 of 9
A patient is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect her vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this patients care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgical intervention. Cataracts are a clouding of the lens in the eye, which can lead to vision impairment. Surgery is the most common and effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Antioxidant supplements (Choice A) may help prevent cataracts but are not a treatment for existing ones. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses (Choice B) can help with vision correction but do not address the cataracts themselves. Corticosteroid eye drops (Choice C) are used for treating inflammation in the eye, not cataracts. Therefore, surgical intervention is the most appropriate treatment option for age-related cataracts.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with ovarian cancer is admitted to the hospital for surgery and the nurse is completing the patients health history. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased abdominal girth. In ovarian cancer, a common clinical manifestation is the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, leading to increased abdominal girth. This is known as ascites. The presence of ascites can be observed through physical examination and abdominal imaging. A: Fish-like vaginal odor is not typically associated with ovarian cancer. It may be a symptom of other gynecological conditions. C: Fever and chills are not specific to ovarian cancer and can be seen in various infectious or inflammatory conditions. D: Lower abdominal pelvic pain is a common symptom in many gynecological conditions but is not a specific manifestation of ovarian cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a family history of allergies has suffered an allergic response based on a genetic predisposition. This atopic response is usually mediated by what immunoglobulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunoglobulin E. The atopic response in allergies is mainly mediated by IgE antibodies. IgE binds to allergens and triggers the release of histamine and other chemicals that cause allergic symptoms. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgM is involved in early immune responses, and IgG is important for long-term immunity. IgE is specifically associated with allergic reactions due to its role in sensitizing mast cells and basophils to allergens.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focusedquality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce disparities. In equity-focused quality improvement, the primary goal is to address and reduce disparities in healthcare outcomes and access. By focusing on reducing disparities, the hospital ensures that all patients receive equitable care regardless of their background. Documenting staff satisfaction (A) is important but not directly related to equity-focused improvement. Focusing on the family (B) is essential for patient-centered care but doesn't specifically address equity. Implementing change on a grand scale (C) may not necessarily target disparities directly. Therefore, reducing disparities aligns best with equity-focused quality improvement principles.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red wine colored. Following a prostatectomy, continuous bladder irrigation is commonly used to prevent blood clots and ensure urine drainage. The output is expected to be red wine colored, indicating the presence of blood in the urine due to surgical trauma. Tea-colored (choice B) or amber (choice C) are not specific enough and do not accurately reflect the expected bloody output. Light pink (choice D) may suggest a lower level of bleeding compared to red wine color, but it is not the most accurate description for post-prostatectomy drainage.
Question 9 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.