Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak, slow pulse. Circulatory overload typically presents with signs of fluid volume excess, such as moist gurgling respirations, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and coughing. A weak, slow pulse is not a characteristic sign of circulatory overload, as the heart rate may actually be elevated due to the increased fluid volume. Therefore, a weak, slow pulse would not be likely to occur in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Oral antidiabetic agents target insulin resistance, common in type 2 diabetes. 2. Type 1 diabetes lacks insulin production, making oral agents ineffective. 3. Choice A is incorrect as insulin cannot be taken orally. 4. Choice C is incorrect as oral agents are not indicated for type 2 diabetes. 5. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not affect the type of diabetes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.