When you report on duty, your team leader tells you that Mr. MartineHi accidentally received 1000 ml of fluids in 2 hours and that you are to be alert for signs of circulatory overload. Which of the following signs would not be likely to occur?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak, slow pulse. Circulatory overload typically presents with signs of fluid volume excess, such as moist gurgling respirations, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and coughing. A weak, slow pulse is not a characteristic sign of circulatory overload, as the heart rate may actually be elevated due to the increased fluid volume. Therefore, a weak, slow pulse would not be likely to occur in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Mr. Franco's condition suggests he may need support and positioning. Step 2: Sandbags provide stability and trochanter rolls prevent hip rotation. Step 3: These help prevent pressure ulcers and maintain proper body alignment. Step 4: Hand bell and bed linen are not essential for Mr. Franco's immediate care. Step 5: Footboard and splint may not be relevant to his specific condition. Step 6: Suction machine and gloves are important but not as crucial as positioning aids for Mr. Franco. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly addresses Mr. Franco's needs for support and positioning, while the other choices are less relevant or not as essential in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potential for infection. The decreased WBC count indicates reduced ability to fight off infections, making this the priority nursing diagnosis. Normal RBC count rules out anemia-related complications. Decreased HCT and Hgb indicate possible anemia but do not directly relate to infection risk. Choices B and C are not as critical as the potential for infection due to the significant impact on the individual's health and well-being. Choice D, fluid volume excess, is not directly related to the blood test results provided.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an Ileostomy involves diverting the small intestine to an opening in the abdominal wall, so the urine will not be affected. The pouch collects waste from the small intestine. Nasogastric tube (B) is not typically required for an Ileostomy. Laparoscope (C) is used for visualizing the abdomen, not the bowel. Drinking liquids (D) so soon after surgery can be risky and is not recommended.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Waiting for the patient to complete the sentence is the most appropriate intervention as it allows the patient time to formulate their thoughts and express themselves. It shows patience and respect for the patient's communication process. B: Immediately showing objects may overwhelm the patient and not allow them to express their thoughts fully. C: Leaving the room would not address the patient's communication difficulty and could make them feel abandoned or misunderstood. D: Naming objects for the patient assumes what they are trying to say and may not accurately represent their intended message.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Hypercalcemia can lead to dehydration due to increased urine output. 2. Encouraging 3 to 4 L of fluid daily helps prevent dehydration and promote renal excretion of excess calcium. 3. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of kidney stones and other complications associated with hypercalcemia. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B (bed rest) does not directly address hypercalcemia complications. - Choice C (cough and deep breathe) is unrelated to managing hypercalcemia. - Choice D (apply heat to painful areas) does not address the underlying cause of hypercalcemia or its complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.