When using the mnemonic PQRSTU to help remember all the points of a patient's perception of his or her problem, what does the "S" signify?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severity. In the PQRSTU mnemonic, "S" stands for Severity, which refers to the intensity or seriousness of the symptoms experienced by the patient. This is crucial in assessing the impact of the problem on the patient's health and well-being. Incorrect choices: A: Swelling - Swelling is a physical symptom and does not encompass all aspects of the patient's perception. B: Subjectivity - While the patient's subjective experience is important, it does not specifically refer to severity. D: Symptoms - While symptoms are part of the patient's perception, the "S" in PQRSTU specifically focuses on the severity of those symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of an abdominal binder after surgery is to increase circulation. An abdominal binder helps improve blood flow to the surgical site, which can aid in reducing swelling, promoting healing, and preventing complications such as blood clots. It provides gentle compression to support the abdominal muscles and tissues without restricting circulation. Choice A (Promote comfort) is incorrect because while an abdominal binder may provide some comfort by supporting the abdomen, its primary purpose is not solely for comfort. Choice B (Prevent infection) is incorrect because an abdominal binder does not directly prevent infection. Infection prevention is primarily achieved through proper wound care and infection control practices. Choice D (Provide wound care) is incorrect because an abdominal binder does not provide wound care. Wound care involves cleaning, dressing changes, and monitoring for signs of infection, which are separate from the purpose of an abdominal binder.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides a thorough list of specific childhood illnesses and confirms the patient's denial of having had them. This approach ensures comprehensive documentation and accuracy. Choice A is vague and lacks specificity, potentially leading to misunderstandings. Choice B focuses on the patient's perception of their health rather than actual illnesses. Choice C mentions the patient's sister and measles, which is irrelevant to the patient's own medical history. Overall, choice D is the most accurate and relevant option for documenting the patient's childhood illnesses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. In chronic heart failure, fluid overload can lead to pulmonary congestion, causing shortness of breath. Weight gain is also a key sign of fluid retention. Increased urine output and hypotension (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Fatigue and dizziness (choice C) can be nonspecific symptoms and not directly related to fluid overload. Dry mouth and thirst (choice D) are symptoms of dehydration rather than fluid overload in chronic heart failure. Monitoring for shortness of breath and weight gain allows for early detection and intervention in managing fluid overload in patients with chronic heart failure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. The priority nursing action for a client with severe dehydration is to restore fluid volume to maintain vital organ function. Administering IV fluids is crucial in rapidly replenishing lost fluids and electrolytes. Corticosteroids (choice B) are not indicated for dehydration. Re-administering IV fluids (choice C) is redundant. Administering analgesics (choice D) is not a priority in the management of severe dehydration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure. When a client develops a fever after surgery, it could indicate various causes, including infection or inflammatory response. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess circulatory status, as fever can lead to increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Administering antibiotics (choice A) should only be done if infection is confirmed. Monitoring temperature and assessing for infection (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority. Administering fluid resuscitation (choice D) may be necessary based on the client's overall condition but should be guided by monitoring blood pressure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. This is the priority intervention because nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing chest pain in clients with heart disease. It improves blood flow to the heart, relieving ischemia. Morphine (B) can mask symptoms and should be used if pain persists after nitroglycerin. Beta blockers (C) are beneficial in chronic management but not for immediate relief. Aspirin (D) helps prevent clot formation but is not the priority in acute chest pain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because monitoring kidney function with regular laboratory tests is crucial in managing CKD. Regular testing helps identify changes in kidney function early, allowing for timely interventions to prevent complications. Administering diuretics (choice A) may worsen kidney function. Encouraging weight loss (choice B) may be necessary, but monitoring kidney function takes precedence. Encouraging the patient to limit fluid intake (choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open airways, making it effective in treating respiratory distress. It works quickly to relieve symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Corticosteroids (B) may be used in conjunction with albuterol for severe cases, but albuterol is the immediate intervention. Providing pain relief (C) is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. Nebulizers (D) are a delivery method for medications like albuterol, but the key intervention is administering the medication itself.