ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, where should the interpreter be positioned?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When using an interpreter to facilitate an interview, it is recommended that the interpreter be positioned next to the patient. This allows the examiner to maintain eye contact with the patient and observe their nonverbal cues, while also being able to hear the interpreter clearly. Placing the interpreter between the examiner and the patient may create a barrier to communication and make it difficult for all parties to observe each other's expressions and body language. Having the interpreter behind the examiner could make it challenging to fully see the patient's lips and nonverbal cues, which are essential in communication. Placing the interpreter in a corner of the room may also lead to decreased engagement and interaction among the participants. Therefore, positioning the interpreter next to the patient provides the most effective communication flow and allows for better observation and understanding during the interview.
Question 2 of 9
Her blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable except for edema of the nasal turbinates. On auscultation she has decreased air movement, and coarse crackles are heard over the left lower lobe. There is dullness on percussion, increased fremitus during palpation, and egophony and whispered pectoriloquy on auscultation. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's symptoms point towards pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by infection and inflammation in the lung tissue, leading to symptoms such as decreased air movement, crackles on auscultation, dullness on percussion, increased fremitus on palpation, and abnormal breath sounds like egophony and whispered pectoriloquy. These findings are consistent with consolidation of the lung, which occurs in pneumonia as a result of fluid, inflammatory cells, and tissue debris filling the alveoli. The presence of nasal turbinates edema indicates a possible upper respiratory tract infection that may have preceded the development of pneumonia. Spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea but would not typically cause findings of lung consolidation. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma are characterized by different patterns of lung damage and symptoms, such as chronic inflammation, airflow obstruction, and hyper
Question 3 of 9
Suzanne is a 20-year-old college student who complains of chest pain. This is intermittent and is located to the left of her sternum. There are no associated symptoms. On examination, you hear a short, high-pitched sound in systole, followed by a murmur which increases in intensity until S . This is heard best over the apex. When she squats, this noise moves later in systole along with the murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is consistent with mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is characterized by the improper closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole, leading to the prolapse of one or both leaflets into the left atrium. The classic auscultatory findings in MVP include a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur. The click is the result of sudden tensing of the chordae tendineae as the mitral valve prolapses, and the murmur occurs as blood leaks backward (mitral regurgitation) due to imperfect valve closure.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following conditions could be responsible for this heart rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial flutter is a cardiac arrhythmia characterized by rapid, regular atrial contractions at a rate of around 250-350 beats per minute. This can lead to a ventricular response rate that is usually around 150 beats per minute, resulting in a fast heart rate. The ECG pattern in atrial flutter typically shows a sawtooth pattern of flutter waves, which distinguishes it from other arrhythmias. In contrast, second-degree A-V block, sinus arrhythmia, and atrial fibrillation would not typically present with the rapid regular atrial contractions seen in atrial flutter.
Question 5 of 9
Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale. She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds. How would you best explain this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely explanation for Mrs. Lenzo noticing a 4-pound weight gain over just 2 days is fluctuations in body fluid. Our body weight can fluctuate throughout the day due to factors such as hydration levels, sodium intake, and hormonal changes. It is not physically possible to gain 4 pounds of actual body mass (e.g., fat or muscle) in such a short period of time by overeating or wearing different clothing. Additionally, if Mrs. Lenzo's scale is very accurate as mentioned, it is less likely that the weight gain is due to instrument inaccuracy. Therefore, the most plausible reason for the sudden weight gain is fluctuations in body fluid retention.
Question 6 of 9
A 62-year-old smoker complains of "coughing up small amounts of blood," so you consider hemoptysis. Which of the following should you also consider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epistaxis, also known as a nosebleed, should be considered in a patient complaining of coughing up blood along with a history of smoking. Epistaxis can sometimes lead to blood trickling down the throat and being coughed up. It is important to consider this differential diagnosis, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking. Intestinal bleeding (choice A) has a different presentation and cause compared to epistaxis. Hematoma of the nasal septum (choice B) is unlikely to cause coughing up blood. Bruising of the tongue (choice D) is also less likely to be the cause of hemoptysis in this case.
Question 7 of 9
An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Family history of osteoporosis is a significant risk factor, as genetics play a key role in determining a person's risk for developing osteoporosis. Having a close relative, such as an aunt, with severe osteoporosis increases this woman's risk as there is a strong genetic component to the disease. Factors such as obesity (choice A), late menopause (choice B), and delayed menarche (choice D) do not directly increase the risk of osteoporosis, unlike having a familial history of the condition.
Question 8 of 9
A 28-year-old musician comes to your clinic, complaining of a "spot" on his penis. He states his partner noticed it 2 days ago and it hasn't gone away. He says it doesn't hurt. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during intercourse. He has had several partners in the last year and uses condoms occasionally. His past medical history consists of nongonococcal urethritis from Chlamydia and prostatitis. He denies any surgeries. He smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, drinks a case of beer a week, and smokes marijuana and occasionally crack. He has injected IV drugs before but not in the last few years. He is single and currently unemployed. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis and he doesn't know anything about his father. On examination you see a young man appearing deconditioned but pleasant. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis there is a 6-mm red, oval ulcer with an indurated base just proximal to the corona. There is no prepuce because of neonatal circumcision. On palpation the ulcer is nontender. In the inguinal region there is nontender lymphadenopathy. What disorder of the penis is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described in the scenario is consistent with a syphilitic chancre, which is the primary lesion of syphilis. Syphilitic chancres are painless, indurated ulcers that occur at the site of initial infection with Treponema pallidum. These chancres are typically 0.5-2 cm in size, have a clean base, and are often accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy. The red oval ulcer with an indurated base in this patient, along with the absence of pain and presence of lymphadenopathy, is consistent with a syphilitic chancre.
Question 9 of 9
On visual confrontation testing, a stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the following terms would describe this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A right homonymous hemianopsia refers to a visual field defect in which the patient is unable to see objects in the right half of the visual field in both eyes. In the case described, the stroke patient is unable to see your fingers on his entire right side with either eye covered, which is consistent with a right homonymous hemianopsia. This type of visual field defect typically occurs as a result of damage to the optic tract or optic radiation on one side of the brain, which affects the processing of visual information from the opposite visual field. It is important to note that bitemporal hemianopsia, right temporal hemianopsia, and binasal hemianopsia involve different patterns of visual field loss and are not fitting descriptions for the presented scenario.