ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
When there is failure to supervise a child adequately, especially in children younger than 12, the kind of child abuse is, which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neglect. Failure to supervise a child adequately falls under the category of neglect, which is the failure to provide for a child's basic needs such as supervision, food, shelter, and medical care. In this scenario, the lack of proper supervision constitutes neglect as it puts the child at risk of harm or danger. Emotional abuse (A) involves harming a child's emotional well-being through actions like verbal abuse. Sexual abuse (C) involves inappropriate sexual behavior towards a child. Physical abuse (D) involves causing physical harm or injury to a child. In this case, the failure to supervise the child adequately is best categorized as neglect, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
In as much as Almira complained of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps, which among the following will the nurse anticipate as the MOST likely diagnosis of the physician after a vaginal examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Threatened abortion. Vaginal spotting and abdominal cramps are common symptoms of a threatened abortion, which occurs when there is a risk of miscarriage but the pregnancy remains viable. This diagnosis is likely after a vaginal examination to assess the cervix and presence of fetal heartbeat. A: Eclampsia is characterized by seizures in pregnancy due to high blood pressure, not typically presenting with vaginal spotting and cramps. C: Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding, not associated with cramps. D: Abruptio placenta is premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, manifesting as painful bleeding, not typically with vaginal spotting and cramps.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm. The patient reports a history of gardening without gloves. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex virus infection. The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm is characteristic of herpes simplex virus infection, specifically herpes zoster (shingles). The linear pattern is due to the virus following a specific nerve pathway. This is different from the other choices - A: Allergic contact dermatitis typically presents as a diffuse rash at the site of contact with an allergen, not a linear pattern. C: Scabies presents with burrows and papules, not vesicles in a linear pattern. D: Poison ivy dermatitis causes a diffuse rash, not a linear vesicular rash.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.
Question 5 of 9
During surgery, the nurse observes a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness. What is the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse is to notify the anesthesia provider immediately (Option D). This is crucial because a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness during surgery could indicate a serious issue related to anesthesia administration. Notifying the anesthesia provider promptly allows for quick assessment and intervention to address the underlying cause, potentially preventing complications or even saving the patient's life. Administering a reversal agent (Option A) without proper evaluation by the anesthesia provider could be dangerous. Documenting the change in the patient's chart (Option B) is important but not the most immediate action. Checking the patient's vital signs (Option C) is also important but may not provide immediate insight into the cause of the change in consciousness.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 7 of 9
Nurse Florence was asked by her Headnurse why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester. Her reply should be, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Nurse Florence was asked why she requested permission to enroll in the Graduate Program for the second semester, not about her interest in Pediatric Nursing. A: Having an impressive resume to be competitive aligns with career advancement. B: Connecting with people professionally can lead to networking opportunities. C: Investing for the future implies long-term career growth. Therefore, D is the least relevant response to the question asked.
Question 8 of 9
Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following would prove that the nursing action carried out met, the standards of care on falls ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilizing the nursing process in providing safe, quality nursing care. This is because the nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation, which ensures comprehensive and individualized care. Documenting procedures (B) is important but does not guarantee meeting standards of care. Simply carrying out doctor's orders (C) may not address all aspects of patient care. Performing physical assessment (D) is crucial but only one component of the nursing process. Ultimately, utilizing the nursing process ensures holistic and evidence-based care, meeting the standards of care on falls.