ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
When the retina is examined, which of the following is considered a normal finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An optic disc that is a yellow-orange colour. This is a normal finding because the optic disc typically appears yellow-orange due to the presence of nerve fibers. The yellow-orange color is due to the absence of blood vessels in this area. This is a normal anatomical characteristic of the optic disc. Option B is incorrect because blurred optic disc margins can indicate pathology such as papilledema. Option C is incorrect because the presence of pigmented crescents in the macular area can indicate a condition like myopic degeneration, not a normal finding. Option D is incorrect because the macula is normally located temporally, not nasally, to the optic disc.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old who has been brought to the clinic for"drainage from the nose." On assessment, it is found that there is a purulent, malodorous drainage from the left naris but no drainage from the right naris. The child is afebrile and has no other symptoms. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform an otoscopic examination of the left naris. The rationale for this is that the child presenting with purulent, malodorous drainage from one naris may indicate a foreign body lodged in the left naris causing infection. By performing an otoscopic examination, the nurse can visualize inside the naris to identify any foreign body or signs of infection. This step is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Referring the child for an antibiotic prescription without further assessment is premature and may not address the underlying cause. B: Having the mother bring the child back in 1 week delays the necessary examination and potential treatment. D: Telling the mother that this is normal without proper assessment could lead to overlooking a potential health issue that requires intervention.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man. Which of the following age-related hearing changes should the nurse keep in mind? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related hearing loss begins in the mid-40s. This is because presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, typically starts around the mid-40s due to natural aging processes affecting the inner ear. Choice B is incorrect as the progression of hearing loss can vary, being gradual for some individuals but not necessarily slow for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as high-frequency tone loss, not low-frequency, is commonly associated with aging. Choice D is incorrect as difficulty hearing consonants is more related to specific types of hearing loss, not solely age-related changes.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is conducting a hearing assessment using the Romberg test. The nurse is assessing for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Romberg test assesses the maintenance of standing balance by having the patient stand with feet together, arms at the sides, and eyes closed. If the patient sways or loses balance, it may indicate proprioceptive deficits. Conductive hearing loss (A) is related to sound transmission issues in the outer or middle ear, not balance. Lateralization of hearing (B) relates to distinguishing sound direction. Sensorineural loss (C) involves inner ear or auditory nerve damage, not balance. Therefore, the correct answer is D as the Romberg test specifically evaluates standing balance.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).
Question 8 of 9
The mother of a newborn asks the nurse when her baby's eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision is not fully developed until around 2 years of age. Newborns have limited visual capabilities and their visual acuity improves over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infants do not develop the ability to focus on an object at 8 months (B), develop coordinated eye movements by 3 months (C), or have uncoordinated eye movements in the first year of life (D). These statements do not accurately reflect the timeline of visual development in infants.
Question 9 of 9
Intraocular pressure is determined by the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because intraocular pressure is primarily determined by the amount of aqueous humor produced and the resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber. When there is an imbalance in the production and outflow of aqueous humor, it can lead to an increase in intraocular pressure, which can result in conditions like glaucoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly influence intraocular pressure. The thickness or bulging of the lens (A) is related to accommodation for near vision, the posterior chamber accommodating fluid (B) is not a primary factor in determining intraocular pressure, and the contraction of the ciliary body (C) affects the shape of the lens for focusing rather than intraocular pressure regulation.