When the nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) on a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant, which of these would be considered a normal finding on a 0 to 4+ scale?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) in a pregnant woman, it is important to understand the normal physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. As the pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and may compress the nerves, leading to hyperreflexia in some women. Choice A: Absent DTRs would not be considered a normal finding in a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation. Absent DTRs could indicate a neurological issue or spinal cord injury, which would require further evaluation. Choice C: 4+ DTRs indicate hyperreflexia, which is not typically seen as a normal finding during pregnancy. Hyperreflexia could be a sign of preeclampsia or other neurological conditions that require medical attention. Choice D: Brisk reflexes and the presence of clonus are also not considered normal findings in a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation. Brisk reflexes could indicate hyperreflexia, while clonus (repetitive, rhythmic contractions of a muscle) could be a sign of spinal cord injury or other neurological issues. Correct Answer: B - 2+ DTRs are considered a normal finding in a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation. This indicates a normal response to the reflex hammer without hyperreflexia or hypoactive reflexes. It is important to note any changes in DTRs and report them to the healthcare provider for further evaluation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described by the woman, including elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, headaches, and visual changes are classic signs of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by seizures, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Diabetes type 1 and preterm labor do not present with the same symptoms as described.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Untreated preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, which can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus, including restriction of fetal growth. Edema is common in pregnancy but is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. Eclampsia can occur before or after delivery, not just before.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the cause of essentially all cases of cervical cancer. This statement is correct because HPV is a known risk factor for cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types can lead to the development of cervical cancer over time. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection, and vaccination against HPV has been shown to reduce the risk of cervical cancer. B: Antibiotics will only cure those STIs caused by bacterial infections. This statement is incorrect because antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial STIs such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis. However, antibiotics are not effective against viral STIs such as HPV, herpes, and HIV. Viral STIs require antiviral medications for management but cannot be cured completely. C: A viral STI infection is a lifetime infection. This statement is incorrect because not all viral STIs are lifetime infections. Some viral STIs such as HPV and herpes may persist in the body indefinitely, but others like hepatitis B and C can be cleared by the immune system over time. It is important to differentiate between different types of viral STIs and their natural history. D: Gonorrhea and syphilis affect both men and women. This statement is incorrect because while gonorrhea and syphilis can affect both men and women, the presentation and complications of these STIs can differ between genders. For example, untreated gonorrhea in women can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility, while in men it can cause epididymitis. Syphilis can also have different manifestations in men and women, highlighting the importance of tailored education and prevention strategies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice A is incorrect because the recommended age to start Pap testing is actually 21, not 25. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG) and the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommend starting Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. Starting screening at age 25 would delay potentially life-saving screenings for cervical cancer. Choice B is the correct answer because it aligns with the current guidelines from ACOG and USPSTF. These organizations recommend that individuals with a cervix should begin Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. This age was chosen based on the risk of developing cervical cancer and the sensitivity of the test in younger individuals. Choice C is incorrect because it does not provide any guidance or information on when to start Pap testing. It leaves the client without a clear answer or direction on when to begin this important screening. Choice D is incorrect because it suggests waiting until the age of 30 to start Pap testing. While recommendations have changed in recent years to lengthen the interval between screenings for some individuals, starting at age 30 would still be too late according to current guidelines. In summary, the correct answer is B because it aligns with current guidelines from ACOG and USPSTF, recommending that individuals begin Pap testing at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to either providing inaccurate information or lacking clear guidance on when to start Pap testing.